Free Testking CCNA MCSE CCNP MCSA CCIE A+ SCJP Certification Questions

01.15.10

Free Testking Citrix 1Y0-256 Exam Braindump

Free Testking Citrix 1Y0-256 Exam Braindump, The Citrix® 1Y0-256 exam is 73 questions long, 90 minutes to take it and a 67% score is needed to pass. The 1Y0-256 exam covers the Presentation Server architectural and applied concepts, installation and management, configuration of farm, ICA connections, printing and policies, publishing and deploying applications and content, managing loads, and enabling web access to and securing published applications and content.
Recommended preparation for the 1Y0-256 includes the official Citrix® eLearning course CTX-1255AW Citrix® Presentation Server 4.0: Architectural Overview and the official instructor led course CTX-1256AI Citrix® Presentation Server: Administration. Also highly recommended, the 1Y0-256 practice exam and study guide from testking.com.
The 1Y0-256 exam is a requirement for a CCA (Citrix® Certified Administrator) for Presentation Server 4.0 certification, a requirement for a CCEA (Citrix® Certified Enterprise Administrator) for Access Suite 4.0 certification and a requirement for a CCIA (Citrix® Certified Integration Architect) for Access Suite 4.0 certification.
1Y0-256 Documents and Exam Prep
To be sure you are fully prepared for the 1Y0-256 Presentation Server 4.0 Administration exam, study all of the material below.

1Y0-256 Citrix® MetaFrame® Presentation Server 4.0 Administration Exam Enablement Guide

MetaFrame® Presentation Server 4.0 Administrator’s Guide

Load Manager Administrator’s Guide

Installation Manager Administrator’s Guide

Web Interface Administrator’s Guide

Client for 32-Bit Windows Administrator’s Guide

Secure Gateway 3.0 Administrator’s Guide

Unattended Installation Packaging Procedure in Installation Manager

1Y0-256 Free Practice Exam

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1.What are two technical considerations for deciding to create more than one farm in a Presentation Server
environment? (Choose two.)
A. The brand of network hardware
B. The types of published applications
C. The geographic location of the servers
D. The type of network connection between the servers
Answer: CD
2. During the setup of Presentation Server, which two options must an administrator select if company
policy dictates that shadowing can only be performed with user permission? (Choose two.)
A. Prohibit remote control
B. Log all shadow requests
C. Force a shadow acceptance popup
D. Allow shadowing of user sessions on this server
E. Prohibit shadowing of user sessions on this server
Answer: CD
3. Scenario: An administrator renamed a server from PSServ01 to W2K3PSServ01. The old name is still
included in the server list and referred to in the data collector ranking, published application references and
license assignments.
What should the administrator do to remove the old server name from the farm data?
A. Uninstall Presentation Server from the system
B. Force the removal of Presentation Server from the system
C. Select Remove server from farm in the Presentation Server Console
D. Update the references to the old name in the appropriate management consoles
Answer: C
4. Scenario: While planning a Presentation Server deployment on multiple servers, an organization wants
to ensure that there is no single point of failure. Which three database options eliminate the single point of
failure? (Choose three.)
A. Oracle
B. IBM DB2
C. Microsoft Access
D. Microsoft SQL Server
E. Microsoft SQL Desktop Engine (MSDE)
Answer: ABD
5. Through which three management tools or utilities can shadowing be enabled for users of Presentation
Server? (Choose three.)
A. Access Suite Console
B. Presentation Server Console
C. Presentation Server Installation
D. Citrix Connection Configuration Utility
E. Web Interface Administration Console
Answer: BCD
6. Scenario: You created a policy for the Human Resources group which restricts the users in that group
from accessing local drives. Human Resources has recently added five new recruiters to the team who will
travel to universities throughout the country to recruit candidates. While on these trips the recruiters will
need to save data to their laptops and upload information nightly to the database which is published and
load-balanced across all servers in the farm. You create a new policy for the recruiters called “HR
recruitment” and disable the rule which restricts the access to the client drives.
Which two filter types should be applied to the “HR recruitment” policy to exclude the recruiters from the
client drive mapping rule? (Choose two.)
A. Server
B. Location
C. Client names
D. Users and user groups
E. Connections made through controlled access
Answer: CD

7. Scenario: You created a policy for the Human Resources group called “HR standard” which restricts the
users in that group from accessing local drives. Human Resources has recently added five new recruiters
to the team who will travel to universities throughout the country to recruit candidates. While on these trips
the recruiters will need to save data on their laptops and upload information nightly to the database which is
published on a Presentation Server. You create a new policy for the recruiters called “HR recruitment” and
disable the rule which restricts the access to the client drives.
Which two steps are required to ensure that the recruiters are able to access their local drives? (Choose
two.)
A. Rank the “HR recruitment” policy higher than the “HR standard” policy.
B. Rank the “HR standard” policy higher than the “HR recruitment”" policy.
C. Filter the “HR standard” policy by users, specify the five recruiter accounts and allow access.
D. Filter the “HR recruitment” policy by users, specify the five recruiter accounts and allow access.
Answer: AD
8. Scenario: You created several policies and configured filters for them in the Presentation Server Console.
You now wish to verify the enforcement of these policies on specific user accounts in your enterprise.
How can you view the effective Citrix policies for these user accounts?
A. Filter the policies by user in the Policy Management Console.
B. From the client device execute the GPRESULT application.
C. In the Presentation Server Console, select Tools, Wizards, Effective Policy Wizard.
D. In the Presentation Server Console, execute the search function focused on the target user accounts
and click “View Resultant Policy”.
Answer: D
9. When applying a newly created policy to a farm, in which three ways can the policy be filtered? (Choose
three.)
A. By farm
B. By server
C. By location
D. By client IP address
E. By user or user group
Answer: BDE
10. Scenario: A production company has Presentation Server enabled for local and remote users. All users
belong to the “Production” user group. In addition, a remote user group is configured.
Several proprietary applications, which are critical to the organization’s business, require audio. Remote
users complain of degraded performance for these applications. The administrator limits the audio
bandwidth for the remote users through a policy called Remote Audio. An additional policy, Production
Audio, is configured for the entire Production group, which optimizes the audio for all employees in that
group.
To ensure that the “Remote Audio” policy is applied to remote user sessions only, which policy should be
ranked highest?
A. Default user
B. SpeedScreen
C. Remote Audio
D. Production Audio
Answer: C
11. Scenario: John, a Citrix administrator, needs to enable the synchronization of PDA devices for both local
and remote users. Users will connect from the LAN to Web Interface.
Which two options allow John to accomplish this? (Choose two.)
A. In the Microsoft Management Console, John can add the Device Manager snap-in.
B. In the Presentation Server Console, John can enable the automatic sharing of PDA devices in server
properties.
C. In the Presentation Server Console, John can create a policy under properties and enable the policy rule
“Turn on automatic virtual COM port mapping”.
D. In the Access Suite Console, John can create a MetaFrame Presentation Server site, select the Manage
Client Connection settings and enable the PDA settings.
Answer: CD

12. Scenario: Two weeks ago you imported a print server and assigned a printer to all users using a session
printers policy. Now a new printer has been added to the same print server.
If you want all users to have access to the newly added printer which two steps should you take? (Choose
two.)
A. Map the required driver.
B. Enable universal driver policy.
C. Configure the auto-creation rule for all clients.
D. Add the printer to the existing session printers policy.
E. Update the network print server in the Printer Management node.
Answer: DE
13. For which two scenarios would it be most appropriate to implement universal printing? (Choose two.)
A. At a company with a diverse printing architecture
B. At an organization with a small IT staff and management of print drivers is not a desired task
C. At a small advertising company which requires color printouts exclusively from Mac clients
D. In an organization in which most users print to locally attached printers using the same print drivers
Answer: AB
14. Which consideration does an administrator need to keep in mind when configuring printer drivers using
the auto-replication method instead of the manual replication method?
A. The auto-replication method always overwrites any existing drivers.
B. Auto-replication of printer drivers cannot be performed over a WAN.
C. All servers need to be manually refreshed after an auto-replication of printer drivers is performed.
D. Auto-replication increases server load and consumes network bandwidth, so it should be done during
off-peak hours.
Answer: D
15. Scenario: Your environment includes Terminal Services mandatory profiles. Users have complained
that the printing properties designated during each session are not retained.
Which two options within the printer properties retention policy will address this complaint? (Choose two.)

A. Enable session printers
B. Retained in user profile only
C. Saved on the client device only
D. Held in profile if not saved on client
Answer: CD
16. Scenario: A user in a company logs on to the farm and launches the published application, Microsoft
Excel. Sometimes the user must wait for a minute or longer for Presentation Server to create all of the
printers before the application can be used.
How can the adminstrator improve the user’s experience?
A. The administrator can give the user workspace control.
B. The administrator can configure the “Inherit client printer” settings option.
C. The administrator can switch from a synchronous to an asynchronous configuration for printer creation.
D. The administrator can use a policy to limit the bandwidth the user consumes in an ICA session to
improve user logon time.
Answer: C
17. Client network printers __________. (Fill in the blank with the correct option.)
A. always route through the client device
B. can have routing configured within printer management properties
C. can have routing configured by means of the print job routing policy
D. always route directly from the Presentation Server to the network printer
Answer: C
18. Scenario: You are an administrator of a farm at a software engineering firm where users are
experiencing delayed log-in times. Although network printers have been imported and assigned, users
typically use their default printer and only change printers when their default printer does not support a
needed feature such as duplexing or color printing. Users are technically competent and usually manage
access to both the default and network printers on their own within ICA sessions.
After enabling the auto-creation printing policy rule, which connection option should be selected to optimize

the users’ experience?
A. Auto-create all client printers
B. Do not auto-create client printers
C. Auto-create the client’s default printer only
D. Auto-create local (non-network) client printers only
Answer: C
19. Scenario: A farm at an architectural firm requires that users have access to a variety of networked
speciality printers, including large format 1200 dpi printers for architectural drawings that require special
drivers. For these printers, native drivers are installed. Remote users also have a wide variety of client
printers.
Which universal printing policy setting is recommended for this environment ?
A. Use universal driver only
B. Both universal and native drivers
C. Use only printer model specific drivers
D. Use universal driver only if requested driver is unavailable
Answer: D
20. In an environment in which universal printing is not being used, when is configuring printer driver
mapping recommended?
A. Whenever network printing is in use
B. Whenever local printers exist in the environment
C. When clients are allowed to print from an application running on a Presentation Server
D. When there are Windows 9X clients with drivers installed that are allowed to print from the server
Answer: D

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01.10.10

Testking Cisco Sales Expert 642-176 Medium Business Exam Braindump

Testking Cisco Sales Expert 642-176 Medium Business Exam Braindump, The 642-176 SMBE SMB Engineer exam is the exam associated with the SMB engineer job role. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the SMB Solutions for Engineers (SMBE) course. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of designing and implementing Cisco SMB Solutions. Topics covered include: describing the components of the Cisco SMB Solution; discovering customer business and technical requirements; designing a Cisco SMB solution; and, implementing a Cisco SMB Solution.
The following information provides general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam.

Describe the components of the Cisco SMB Solution
Describe the basic functionality of LANs
Describe the basic functionality of WANs
Describe how Cisco SMB switches are used in a LAN solution
Describe how Cisco SMB Integrated Service Routers (ISRs) are used in LAN and WAN solutions
Discover customer business and technical requirements
Conduct an initial audit of existing customer business and technical architecture
Identify current and future customer technical requirements
Identify customer security requirements
Identify customer QoS requirements
Identify customer Wireless requirements
Identify customer Voice requirements
Design a Cisco SMB solution
Design a LAN for a Cisco SMB solution
Design a WAN for a Cisco SMB solution
Design a Layer 3 Cisco SMB solution
Design an integrated security Cisco SMB solution
Use Quote Builder to design the Bill of Materials
Document the SMB solution design for customer signoff
Implement a Cisco SMB Solution
Use SDM to configure Cisco ISRs for the SMB solution
Use CNA to configure Cat Express 500 switches for the SMB solution
1. Refer to the exhibit. What are the two options available when using the Security Audit configuration task
in Cisco SDM? (Choose two.)
A. Perform a virus scan.
B. Perform a secure audit on the router.
C. Perform a one-step lockdown on the router.
D. Perform a denial-of-service attack on the router to verify that it is protected.
E. Perform a real-time inspection of incoming traffic destined for the router.
Answer: BC
2. The recommended WAN access method for a simplified and cost-effective Cisco Single-Site Secure
Network Foundation deployment provides which type of service?
A. best-effort
B. low latency
C. guaranteed quality
D. guaranteed bandwidth
Answer: A
3. Refer to the exhibit. From this Cisco SDM Security Audit Wizard screen, what should you do to secure
the router?
A. Click Next.
B. Click Fix All, then Next.
C. Click Fix All, then clear CDP check box, then Next.
D. Click Fix All, then clear CDP check box, then Next, then immediately reboot the router.
E. Click Fix All, then clear CDP check box, then Next, then manually disable CDP on the WAN interface.
F. Click Fix All, then clear CDP check box, then Next, then manually disable CDP on the WAN interface,
then immediately reboot the router.
Answer: E
4. Refer to the exhibit. In a Cisco Single-Site Secure Network Foundation implementation, which factor
affects your choice of switch configuration?
A. type of QoS scheme that is being used
B. maximum number of supported IP phones
C. maximum amount of packet latency acceptable
D. type of security scheme that is being implemented
Answer: B
5.What is the reason for running spanning tree in a Cisco Single-Site Secure Network Foundation solution?
A. to allow management of all network devices
B. to aggregate logical network groups together at one central point
C. to protect the network in case someone inadvertently creates a physical loop in it
D. to ensure that if a device fails another device will automatically take over for it
E. to connect like devices, such as phones or computers, in logical network groups
Answer: C
6. Refer to the exhibit. Which Cisco SDM configuration task would you select to configure a static route to
the service provider?
A. NAC
B. NAT
C. Routing
D. Quality of Service
E. Intrusion Protection
Answer: C
7.Which statement correctly describes network security settings in Cisco Network Assistant for the Catalyst
Express 500 switch?
A. The default network security setting is “HIGH”.
B. The “LOW” setting enables broadcast storm control and limits the number of devices that can connect to
a switch port.
C. The “LOW” setting disables broadcast storm control and has no effect on the number of devices that can
connect to a switch port.
D. The “LOW” setting enables broadcast storm control, but has no effect on the number of devices that can
connect to a switch port.
E. The “LOW” setting disables broadcast storm control but limits the number of devices that can connect to
a switch port.
Answer: B
8. Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit is an example of which technology being implemented?
A. PAT
B. QoS
C. 802.1Q
D. VLANs
E. spanning tree
Answer: A
9. Which three of these are prerequisites for resetting a Catalyst Express 500 switch when Cisco Network
Assistant is unavailable? (Choose three.)
A. a switch with no connected devices
B. physical access to the switch
C. a PC pre-configured with a specific IP address and mask
D. at least one enabled switch port that is unconnected to any device
E. a PC or laptop with Windows 2000 or Windows XP installed and a web browser that has JavaScript
enabled
Answer: BDE
10. If voice and data traffic will be sent and received via a WAN link, what must be configured to provide a
certain amount of dedicated bandwidth and to prioritize the voice traffic over other types of network traffic?
A. IPSec VPN
B. NAT
C. QoS mechanisms
D. EIGRP routing protocol
E. Static routing
F. Firewall
Answer: C

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01.10.10

Testking Cisco 650-251 LCSAUC Exam Braindump

Testking Cisco 650-251 LCSAUC Exam Braindump, The 650-251 LCSAUC Cisco Lifecycle Services for Advanced Unified Communications exam is the exam associated with the Advanced Unified Communications Specialization. The Cisco Lifecycle Services for Advanced Unified Communications (LCSAUC) exam assesses the candidate’s knowledge and skills needed to support implementing an advanced Unified Communications solution on a network throughout each phase of the lifecycle. The exam assesses Cisco’s methodology to guide customers in performing all of the necessary steps to ensure a successful implementation of Unified Communications solutions.
The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the Remote Access exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. In order to better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.

Describe the phases of the Cisco Lifecycle Services for Advanced UNIFIED COMMUNICATIONS.
The Phases are:
Prepare
Plan
Design
Implement
Operate
Optimize

Describe the value of the Cisco Lifecycle Services for Advanced UNIFIED COMMUNICATIONS
Describe the value of the Service Components included in the prepare phase
Describe the value of the Service Components included in the plan phase
Describe the value of the Service Components included in the design phase
Describe the value of the Service Components included in the implement phase
Describe the value of the Service Component included in the operate phase
Describe the value of the Service Component included in the optimize phase

Describe the value of the activities in each phase of the Cisco Lifecycle Services approach
Describe the value of the activities included in the prepare phase
Describe the value of the activities included in the plan phase
Describe the value of the activities included in the design phase
Describe the value of the activities included in the implement phase
Describe the value of the activities included in the operate phase
Describe the value of the activities included in the optimize phase

1. Quality of service is analyzed at which service component within the Cisco Unified Communications plan
phase?
A. Network Readiness Assessment
B. Application Readiness Assessment
C. Site Readiness Assessment
D. Operation Readiness Assessment
Answer: A
2. Which optimize phase service component assesses the current state of the network management
infrastructure of a customer to identity issues and opportunities that lead to recommendations for improving
the ability to manage their Cisco Unified Communications system?
A. Deployment Assessment
B. Technology Assessment
C. Security Assessment
D. Operations Assessment
Answer: D
3. Which statement most accurately describes the account planning service component in the prepare
phase for Cisco Unified Communications?
A. It performs a detailed financial analysis, including current phone network costs, training, and return of
investment.
B. It researches unique challenges and conducts competitive analysis to determine a vertical approach and
strategy.
C. It identifies the key players, high-level solution requirements, timelines, and scope of the opportunity.
D. It provides the partner with information regarding customer acceptance of the new solution.
Answer: B
4. Which phase includes conducting Cisco Unified Communications network traffic analysis and capacity
planning in order to ensure high availability?
A. Design
B. Prepare
C. Maintain
D. Optimize
Answer: D
5.Which two of the following activities are included in the Cisco Unified Communications staff development?
Select two.
A. Collect Cisco Unified Communications Training Materials
B. Develop Job Role Training Requirement
C. Request for Training Budget
D. Develop Curriculum Map
E. Develop Informal Basic Training
Answer: BD

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01.10.10

Testking Cisco Sales Expert 646-203 CSE Exam Braindump

Testking Cisco Sales Expert 646-203 CSE Exam Braindump, The 646-203 CSE exam covers topics on AWID, Campus LAN, Wireless LAN, WAN, IP Telephony, Security and Virtual Private Networks, Network Management, Service and Support, Optical, Storage and Area Network, Content Networking, Video, and High Speed Network.
The following information provides general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. In order to better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.

Why Cisco
Identify the definition of, the components of, the function of, and the business benefits of Cisco IOS
Identify the key characteristics of Cisco that help meet customer needs
Identify key facts related to the origins and general strength of Cisco

Campus LAN
Identify the definition of a Campus LAN and identify the components of a Campus LAN
Identify the definition of a switch, the functionality of a switch, and differentiate between a hub and a switch
Identify the definition of a router and the functionality of a router
Identify the definition of a multi-layer switch and the functionality of a multi-layer switch
Identify the definition of the access area, distribution area, and core area of the Campus LAN
Given an access area, distribution area, or core area and the size of a LAN, identify which Catalyst series fits in the LAN
Identify five series of Cisco routers that connect a LAN to a WAN (Cisco 1700 Series Access Routers, Cisco 2600 Series Multiservice Platforms, Cisco 3700 Series Multiservice Access Routers)
Identify opportunities for switched Campus LANs

Wireless LAN
Identify the definition of wireless LAN and the components of a wireless LAN (Access points, Client adapters, Antennas, Bridges)
Identify descriptions of the methods for providing security for wireless LANs (SSI, Encryption, Authentication)
Identify opportunity indicators for Wireless LANs
Identify Cisco wireless products and their market placement

WAN
Identify the definition of a WAN, the backbone of a WAN and the edge of a WAN
Identify which Cisco product series (routers, switches, and gateways) should be used in a WAN
Identify which Cisco access server series or gateways should be used in a WAN
Identify opportunity indicators for WANs

IP Telephony
Identify the definition of IP telephony and the function of technologies that support IP telephony
Describe how IP components replace traditional network components and place them in a network map
Identify the features and functionality of the Cisco product series that support IP telephony
Identify opportunity indicators for IP telephony

Security and Virtual Private Networks
Identify the definition and purpose of network security and Virtual Private Networks
Identify the description of a common threat to network security
Identify the definitions of network security elements
Identify descriptions of network security components
Present the Cisco vision of security, wherein security is a required, embedded component across every area of, and device on, the network
Associate the appropriate Cisco product family or product series with five key elements of an overall plan for network security
Identify opportunity indicators for network security

Network Management
Identify the purposes and benefits of network management including maintenance, operational support, and security
Identify the benefits of the CiscoWorks family of products
Identify opportunity indicators for Cisco network management products

Service and Support
Articulate the value of Technical Support Services, Advanced Services, and Advisory Services for Cisco technology and how these programs help increase overall customer satisfaction
Recognize the difference between the level of support that customers receive under a warranty versus that of a service contract
Understand how service and support contracts help maximize customer satisfaction and loyalty, which helps account managers increase account control and profitability through customer satisfaction

Optical
Identify the definition, components, and uses for optical networking
Identify benefits of optical networking

Storage Area Networking
Identify the definition, components and uses of storage networking
Place the following Cisco product families in a network diagram and explain their purpose regarding storage networking (5400, MDS 9000, ONS 15000)

Content Networking
Identify the definition and uses of content networking
Identify appropriate insertion strategies
Identify the purposes of content networking components: content distribution, content routing, content switching, and content engines

Video
Identify definitions, components and uses of IP videoconferencing (IP/VC)
Identify definitions, components and uses of IP TV broadcasting (IP/TV)
Identify business benefits of IP videoconferencing and IP TV broadcasting

High Speed Access
Identify the definition, components, and uses of high speed access
1.Which component connects dissimilar network environments?
A. hub
B. MAU
C. gateway
D. repeater
Answer: C
2.Which feature of Cisco IOS allows customers flexibility and choice when electing platforms for their
networks?
A. open standards
B. quality of service (QoS)
C. remote software upgrades
D. broad installed base on platforms
Answer: A
3.An essential element of Cisco development has been its leading role in advancing hat network protocol?
A. Internet Protocol (IP)
B. Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP)
C. Serial Line Internet Protocol (SLIP)
D. Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM)
Answer: A
4.What is a network that is composed of smaller local-area networks (LANs) that xist within a business
campus?
A. campus LAN
B. LAN campus subnet
C. campus wide-area network (WAN)
D. campus storage-area network (SAN)
E. campus local-area neighborhood (LAN)
F. campus metropolitan-area network (MAN)
Answer: A
5.In which area of the campus local-area network (LAN) are the user computers ttached to the network?
A. core
B. access
C. distribution
D. aggregation
Answer: B
6.A company with 100 employees predicts that its employee number will triple in the next six months. It is currently using hubs to connect employee computers.Which solution should an account manager offer that
would best meet upcoming company needs?
A. optical network
B. storage network
C. switched network
D. Internet protocol (IP) telephony
Answer: C
7.Which open standard promotes interoperability among the wireless client adapters and dial-in servers of
various manufacturers?
A. 802.11b
B. service set identifier (SSID)
C. Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)
D. Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP)
Answer: D
8.Which two Internet Protocol (IP) telephony devices are best categorized as infrastructure components?
(Choose two.)
A. IP telephones
B. voice gateways
C. call management software
D. Media Convergence Servers (MCSs)
Answer: B D
9.Which network component blocks unwanted connections and content from both internal and external
sources?
A. firewall
B. extranet
C. access control
D. Virtual Private Network (VPN) tunnel
Answer: A
10.Which Cisco product allows customers to centrally manage their network security policies?
A. Cisco Firewall Services Module (FWSM)
B. Cisco Security Posture Assessment (SPA)
C. Cisco Secure Access Control Server (ACS)
D. Cisco Virtual Private Network/Security Management Solution (VMS)
Answer: D
11.A growing publishing firm needs a secure way for remote content editors to connect through the Internet
to the company extranet.Which Cisco solution best matches this business need?
A. IP telephony
B. wireless network
C. content networking
D. Virtual Private Network (VPN)
Answer: D
12.Which network technology allows for the monitoring of active communication networks to diagnose
problems and gather statistics for network administration?
A. network security
B. content networking
C. network management
D. campus local-area networking
Answer: C
13.SMARTnet and SMARTnet Onsite provide which two services? (Choose two.)
A. updates to all Cisco software
B. support for Cisco IOS software
C. registered access to Cisco.com
D. support for application software such as Cisco CallManager
Answer: B C
14.Which two characteristics of optical networks allow data to be transmitted over extremely long distances?
(Choose two.)
A. no encryption
B. minimal signal loss
C. no bandwidth limits
D. no electromagnetic interference (EMI)
Answer: B D
15.What are two benefits of an optical networking solution? (Choose two.)
A. supports bandwidth on demand
B. provides support for mobile workers
C. increases network transmission speeds
D. offers simple installation and configuration
Answer: A C
16.What is storage networking?
A. optical storage networks based on the Fibre Channel protocol
B. hardware and software that deliver rich media to the network edge
C. hardware and software that unite multiple server-based storage areas
D. a storage array attached to a server using a Small Computer Systems Interface (SCSI)
Answer: C
17.Which Cisco product provides network services that include management of virtual storage-area
networks (VSANs), advanced traffic management, and sophisticated diagnostics?
A. ICS 7750
B. MDS 9000 Family
C. ONS 15000 Series
D. 5400 Storage Router Series
Answer: B
18.Internet Protocol TV broadcasting (IP/TV) is appropriate for which two business scenarios? (Choose
two.)
A. a pharmaceutical organization that wants to provide daily updates on competitor products and any
external awards or news coverage the company receives
B. a manufacturing facility that needs to provide updated training on proper equipment usage and to allow
operators to hear and see peers at all participating sites
C. a global fast-food franchise that needs to coach new managers on best practices in customer service
and leadership behaviors and answer questions from the audience
D. an accounting firm that wants to deliver monthly training sessions to global finance personnel who need
to access sessions at different times, depending on branch locations
Answer: A D
19.Which two devices are considered customer premises equipment (CPE) for digital subscriber line (DSL)
systems? (Choose two.)
A. DSL router
B. DSL modem
C. DSL Internet Protocol (IP) switch
D. “Smart” DSL access multiplexer (DSLAM)
Answer: AB
20.A switch operates at Layer 2 of the OSI model.What is the name of that layer?
A. session
B. network
C. data link
D. presentation
Answer: C

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12.29.09

Free Testking 1z0-108 10g DBA WebLogic Server Exam Braindump

Free Testking 1z0-108 10g DBA WebLogic Server Exam Braindump, 1Z0-108 Exam Oracle WebLogic Server 10g System Administration.
Oracle WebLogic System Administration : 1Z0-108 Exam
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1. Scenario : A single tier WebLogic cluster is configured with six Managed Servers. An Enterprise
application is deployed to the cluster with a web application and EJBs packaged in the same EAR file.
An EAR file is being deployed to the cluster using two-phase deployment. Which of the following is true if
one of the Managed Servers is NOT started in the cluster?
A. First and second phase deployment will be completed on all remaining instances in the cluster.
B. First phase deployment will not be completed on the remaining instances in the cluster.
C. First phase deployment will be completed but the second phase will not be completed on the remaining
instances in the cluster.
D. First and second phase deployment will not be completed if enforceClusterConstraints is set to true for
the Deployer.
E. Both a and d
Answer: E
2. Which of the following statements are true for built-in roles in the WebLogic Server Administration
console? Choose two.
A. Users who belong to the Operator role can deploy the applications.
B. Users who belong to the Monitor role can view the server configuration, except for the encrypted
attributes.
C. Users who belong to the Admin role cannot deploy applications.
D. Only users who belong to the Admin role can start, stop, and resume the server.
E. Users who belong to the Admin role can modify the entire server configuration.
Answer: BE
3. Scenario : Consider an upgrade requirement from pre-WebLogic Server 10.x to the WebLogic Server
10.x. Since the administration scripts in the prior version used WebLogic Ant tasks for creation and
deployment, the team decides to use the Ant build.xml approach and extend this to the current version of
the server.
Which of the following about the Ant task wlserver is INCORRECT?
A. wlserver can be used to start, reboot or shut down server instances.
B. wlserver can be used to connect to existing server instances.
C. wlserver can be used to create a multiple server domain configuration.
D. wlserver can be used to create a single server domain and to connect to the server.
Answer: C
4. Click on the Exhibit button.
Scenario : You have made the decision to migrate all your operations onto WebLogic Server. An
application has been chosen from each department for the initial phase of migration ?one from each of
Sales, Marketing, Accounts, and Customer Service. The applications will be deployed as individual EAR
files to a cluster of WebLogic Server 10.x instances, each with a pool of connections to an Oracle 10g
database that provides corporate and departmental data services. The database team hopes to upgrade
the database to use Oracle RAC (Real Application Clusters) shortly, which will require you to configure
multiple sets of connections. Connectivity to the existing Service Engineer Dispatch system is via a JMS
message bridge. When a service engineer calls in with a report, a message is sent via JMS to the
Customer Service application deployed in WebLogic Server. The customer record in the Customer
Service database must be updated with details from the message. It is important that the message is not
lost because the call management system is not able to resend messages. To address this, the Customer
Service application is accessing a persistent JMS Queue using an XA compatible connection factory.
The database security team insists that any use of the corporate Oracle database can be traced to the
individual user that made the request. How can this be achieved when using WebLogic JDBC Data
Sources?
A. Set the Enable Credential Mapping property for the Data Source.
B. Set Initial Capacity to zero, so each user creates a new connection.
C. Set the value of user to {WLS_USER} in the Properties field.
D. This can only be done using application code.
E. This cannot be done because Data Sources connect using a single username.
Answer: A
5. In a multi-server WebLogic domain, monitoring the JVM statistics showed frequent full garbage
collections (gc) on one of the server instances. Which one of the following would greatly reduce the
frequency of full gcs?
A. Increasing the young object space in the heap
B. Turning the -verbosegc flag on
C. Adding more servers to the domain
D. Running more servers per machine
Answer: A
6. What are the four basic components of a JMS system-resource module in the config.xml in WebLogic
10.x?
A. Name, target, subdeployment, descriptor-file-name
B. Domain, jms-server, connection factory, destination
C. Config.xml, jms-module, subdeployment, descriptor-file-name
D. Name, jms-module, subdeployment, descriptor-file-name
Answer: A
7. The deployment configuration for an application or module is NOT stored in which type of the following
XML document:
A. J2EE deployment descriptors
B. weblogic-*.xml descriptors
C. WebLogic Server deployment plans
D. WebLogic config.xml
Answer: D
8. Scenario : Consider a b2b commerce application hosted on a WebLogic cluster with JMS messages
being received, processed, and forwarded to external servers. The server log indicates a potential stuck
thread problem where threads are continually getting stuck and JMX monitoring indicates a continuous
backlog of pending messages that could be due to any of the in-flight messages, delayed messages, or
messages being inhibited from delivery.
The recommended approach for setting the number of execute threads would be:
A. Set the default thread pool max value to match load expectations
B. Use an iterative approach to set the max thread count value
C. Set this value the same as the max connections value set on database connections
D. Leave this setting to be handled by the Work Manager by configuring MaxThreadsConstraint
Answer: D
9. An application-wide deployment plan was used to deploy an application. Based on post-performance
diagnosis, the HTTP post size needs to be reduced. Following would be a valid approach:
A. Configure the http maximum post size value in the existing deployment plan for redeploying using the
weblogic.Deployer utility.
B. Update the http maximum post size for the application using weblogic.Deployer.
C. Use weblogic.PlanGenerator to update http maximum post size configuration and redeploy the
application.
D. Use weblogic.Admin to set auto-tune-http-setting to be true and redeploy the application.
Answer: A
10. Scenario : The Stock Control Application you are going to deploy to a cluster of WebLogic Managed
Servers requires a JMS destination to asynchronously deliver the messages to the back-end Warehousing
Application. To distribute the messages across the cluster, you decided to configure the distributed
destination. Also the Warehousing Application is a legacy application written to implement a proprietary MQ
API connecting an MQ-Series server. The Stock Control Application is implemented as a web application on
a WebLogic cluster delivering the message to the distributed destination. The cluster has three Managed
Servers hosted on two high powered machines and one low range/powered machine.
To distribute the physical destinations unevenly across the clustered WebLogic Managed Servers so that
the high-powered machines can receive more messages than the low-powered machines, configure the
distributed destination with:
A. “Allocate Members Uniformly” set to false and manually select more physical destinations from the
high-powered machines
B. “Uneven Distribution” set to true and select all the physical destinations
C. “Uniform Distribute Destination” set to true and select all the physical destinations from the high-powered
and low- powered machines
D. “Load Balancing Policy” set to Random and select only the destination from the high-powered machine
Answer: A
11. JMS interop modules are different from JMS system resource modules because (Choose two)
A. JMS interop modules cannot use “Unit-of-Order”.
B. JMS interop modules can be targeted to multiple WebLogic Servers at the same time in a domain.
C. JMS interop module configuration is always stored as interop-jms.xml.
D. JMS interop module cannot use “Quota.”
Answer: BC
12. Which of the following is true about JMS Quota resources in WebLogic Server 10.x?
A. Quota settings can be shared across multiple JMS destinations so that they can compete.
B. Quota settings are defined on the JMS connection factory level.
C. Quota settings can be used to limit the number of JMS Connections to a JMS Server.
D. Quota settings can be shared across multiple WebLogic domains.
Answer: A
13. The feature to group messages into a single unit that is processed sequentially in the order that the
messages were created is called
A. Unit-or-Sort
B. Message Sorting
C. Destination Keys
D. Unit-of-Order
Answer: D
14.When a message is being processed by a consumer, the other unprocessed messages which belong to
the same Unit-of-Order will be:
A. Expired
B. Blocked
C. Delivered to the consumers
D. Rolled back
Answer: B
15. Click on the Exhibit button.
Scenario : A multi-cluster architecture, with two geographically separated clusters (WAN-1 and WAN-2), is

being created. It will provide cross-cluster WAN HTTP session failover. The WAN-1 cluster is located in
London and the WAN-2 cluster is located in New York and is connected via a slow interconnect. The client
request passes through a Global load balancer which load balances the request to local load balancers
which eventually pass the load to WebLogic Server instances in the cluster. Four WebLogic Server
instances will be running on each cluster distributed on two physical machines, two WebLogic instances per
physical machine. A database is configured on each cluster for HTTP Session state failover between the
clusters.
What would be the characteristics of the above WAN Cluster for optimal performance and scalability?
A. High network latency, asynchronous persistent replication between WAN-1 and WAN-2, synchronous
intra-cluster replication and cross-cluster replication via in-memory, JDBC or file persistence.
B. Fast network, synchronous persistent replication between WAN-1 and WAN-2, asynchronous replication
intra-cluster and cross-cluster replication via file persistence.
C. High network latency, asynchronous persistent replication between WAN-1 and WAN-2, synchronous
intra-cluster replication and cross-cluster replication via JDBC
D. Low network latency, asynchronous persistent replication between WAN-1 and WAN-2, no intra-cluster
replication and cross-cluster replication via JDBC
E. Fast network, synchronous persistent replication between WAN-1 and WAN-2, asynchronous
intra-cluster replication and cross-cluster replication via cookie persistence.
Answer: C
17. Click on the Exhibit button.
Scenario : A multi-cluster architecture, with two geographically separated clusters (WAN-1 and WAN-2), is
being created. It will provide cross-cluster WAN HTTP session failover. The WAN-1 cluster is located in
London and the WAN-2 cluster is located in New York and is connected via a slow interconnect. The client
request passes through a Global load balancer which load balances the request to local load balancers
which eventually pass the load to WebLogic Server instances in the cluster. Four WebLogic Server
instances will be running on each cluster distributed on two physical machines, two WebLogic instances per
physical machine. A database is configured on each cluster for HTTP Session state failover between the
clusters.
If the admin server for New York cluster crashes, what will be the effect on inter-cluster communication
between the two sites?
A. There’s no effect on the inter-cluster communication between the two sites
B. JDBC session flushing between two sites will be affected and will only be restarted on the Admin server
reboot.
C. Intra-cluster multicasting will be affected and inter-cluster communication will slow down between the
sites.
D. The Managed Servers will lose session stickiness and the server Health state will be changed to
suspend.
E. Both c and d
Answer: A
18. Click on the Exhibit button.
Scenario : A multi-network cluster, say WAN-1 and WAN-2, is being created that will provide WAN HTTP
session failover. The WAN-1 cluster is located in London and the WAN-2 cluster is located in New York and
is connected via a slow interconnect. The client request passes through a Global load balancer which load
balances the request to local load balancers which eventually pass the load to WebLogic Server instances
in the cluster. Four WebLogic Server instances will be running on each cluster distributed on two physical
machines, two WebLogic instances per physical machine. A database is configured on each cluster for
HTTP Session state failover between the clusters.
How can you configure in-memory session replication on the London cluster?
A. The web application deployment descriptor, weblogic.xml needs to have the persistent-store-type set to
memory.
B. The web application deployment descriptor, weblogic.xml needs to have the persistent-store-type set to
replicated.
C. The web application deployment descriptor, weblogic.xml needs to have the persistent-store-type set to
cookie.
D. The web application deployment descriptor, web.xml needs to have the persistent-store-type set to
memory.
E. The web application deployment descriptor, web.xml needs to have the persistent-store-type set to
replicated.
Answer: B
19. Scenario : A single tier WebLogic cluster is configured with six Managed Servers. An Enterprise
application is deployed to the cluster with a web application and EJBs packaged in the same EAR file.
A JSP in the web application makes an initial Context lookup on the stateless EJB and makes multiple
method calls to the EJB. Which of the following is true?
A. Each method call is invoked on an EJB on the same server as the web application as long as the server
is not overloaded.
B. Each method call is invoked on the same EJB in the same server as the web application as long as the
server is not overloaded.
C. Each method call round robins between the servers.
D. The behavior depends on the load algorithm on the replica-aware stub.
E. Every third call goes to a random server.
Answer: A

20. Requirement demands that an incoming request from a portfolio manager has to have a higher priority
compared to other users of the application. As an administrator, which one of the following approaches
would you adopt?
A. Use Work Manager with the execute thread model to set up rules to associate a priority to the user.
B. Use Work Manager fair-share-request-class to associate a priority to the user.
C. Use Work Manager response-time-request-class to associate a priority to the user.
D. Use Work Manager context-request-class to associate a priority to the user.
Answer: D

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12.28.09

Free Testking 1Y0-A13 Citrix Access Gateway 9.0 Exam Braindump

Free Testking 1Y0-A13 Citrix Access Gateway 9.0 Exam Braindump, Citrix 1Y0-A13 Exam Implementing Citrix Access Gateway 9.0, Enterprise Edition.

1. A system administrator has been asked to configure Access Gateway 9.0, Enterprise Edition so that
users are NOT presented with the choices page and can only connect clientlessly. The administrator has
decided to perform this configuration at the global level. What should be set under the Client Experience
tab?
A. Clientless Access to On
B. Plugin Type to Windows
C. Clientless Access URL Encoding to Clear
D. Windows Plugin Type to Access Gateway
Answer: A
2. An administrator wants users to be able to access resources running on file servers and application
servers in an environment. The administrator has deployed Access Gateway 9.0, Enterprise Edition. The
Citrix Access Gateway Plugin for Windows is used to establish connections to the corporate network. There
are no intranet applications configured in this environment and split tunneling is turned off. The default
authorization policy is set to “Deny.”
Users in this environment will be able to access applications on file and application servers as long as
_______. (Choose the correct phrase to complete the sentence.)
A. users are assigned specific intranet IP addresses
B. an authorization policy is configured to grant them access
C. internal resources are assigned specific intranet IP addresses
D. internal resources in this environment are configured as published applications
Answer: B
3. An Access Gateway virtual server is configured with the following three settings:
ICA Proxy is set to ON
Web Interface address is set to “http://10.102.32.201:80/Citrix/AccessPlatform”
Clientless Access is set to ON
Client Choices is enabled
Which client choice(s) will be available to a user logging in from a client device running a Windows
operating system?
A. Web Interface only
B. Clientless Access only
C. Web Interface and Clientless Access
D. Access Gateway Plugin for Windows, Web Interface and Clientless Access
Answer: C
4. A system administrator created a new virtual server, “admin.widget.com”, on an Access Gateway
appliance. Only system administrators will be connecting to this virtual server. These system administrators
require a full SSL VPN tunnel when connecting. Other users connect to another virtual server,
“users.widget.com”, which runs on the same Access Gateway appliance. Any user connecting through
“users.widget.com” currently connects clientlessly. Which action must the administrator take to give the
system administrators full VPN access?
A. Edit the virtual server corresponding to admin.widget.com and enable the Citrix Access Gateway Plugin
for ActiveX
B. Create a session policy, set Clientless Access to Off in the profile associated with the policy and apply
the policy to users.widget.com
C. Create a session policy, set Clientless Access to Off in the profile associated with the policy and apply
the policy to admin.widget.com
D. Create a session policy, select Citrix Access Gateway Plugin for Windows as the “Windows PluginType”
in the profile associated with the policy and apply the policy to admin.widget.com
Answer: D
5. The Citrix Access Gateway Plugin for Windows needs administrative privileges _______ and ________
on a Windows XP device. (Choose the two correct phrases to complete the sentence.)
A. for installation
B. for upgrading or downgrading of the system
C. for Endpoint Analysis checks that require administrative privileges
D. for those rare situations where it will be used as an antivirus application
Answer: AC
6. An administrator wants to provide access to published applications hosted on XenApp servers only,
without requiring the use of a Citrix Access Gateway Plugin for Windows.Which feature should the
administrator enable in order to meet the needs of this environment?
A. ICA proxy
B. Single sign-on
C. SmartAccess with ICA proxy
D. Session Reliability on Web Interface
Answer: A
7. The wireless network in an environment is NOT secure, so users connecting over it need to log on to
Access Gateway in order to access resources in the corporate intranet. The users in this environment are
running Windows XP on their client devices and management has instructed the IT team to ensure that
users are logged on automatically to Access Gateway using the Windows credentials they used to log on to
their client devices.Which Access Gateway Plugin type should the IT team implement in this environment?
A. Clientless Access
B. Citrix Access Gateway Plugin for Java
C. Citrix Access Gateway Plugin for ActiveX
D. Citrix Access Gateway Plugin for Windows
Answer: D
8. A network administrator created multiple personal folder files (*.pst) on a workstation while accessing
Outlook over a VPN session. The administrator would like for the *.pst files to be deleted upon logout from
the VPN session.The administrator should configure the client cleanup to clean up _______. (Choose the
correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. cookies
B. *.pst files
C. address bars
D. application data
Answer: D
9. An Access Gateway virtual server is configured with the following settings:
A group named QUARGRP
A session profile named QUARPROF, with Clientless Access mode set to ON
A session policy named QUARPOL, with the expression, “NS_TRUE” and the profile QUARPROF
The QUARPOL session policy is bound to the QUARGRP group
The global settings with Client Security is set to “CLIENT.APP.AV == SYMANTEC EXISTS” and the
quarantine group is set to QUARGRP
Which client will be provided to a user who logs on to the virtual server from a client device that is NOT
running Symantec Antivirus?
A. Web Interface
B. Clientless Access
C. Citrix Access Gateway Plugin for Java
D. Citrix Access Gateway Plugin for Windows
Answer: B

10. A network administrator is instructed to perform client-side cleanup before every session over the Citrix
Access Gateway Plugin for Windows through the Access Gateway appliance.What is true about client-side
cleanup?
A. Client-side cleanup clears the history of the browser.
B. Client-side cleanup cleans up data regularly during the session.
C. Client-side cleanup will delete all Internet Explorer temporary files.
D. Client-side cleanup will NOT clean up any data before the session starts.
Answer: D

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12.28.09

Free Testking APC DU0-001 APC Certification Exam Braindump

Free Testking APC DU0-001 APC Certification Exam Braindump, APC DU0-001 Data Center University Associate Certification, Here we are committed to you ongoing success. Testking exams and questions are constantly being updated and compared to industry standards.

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1. Click the Exhibit button.
Which air distribution method is displayed in this picture?
A. Flooded supply, fully ducted return
B. Flooded supply, locally ducted return
C. Locally ducted supply, flooded return
D. Locally ducted supply, flooded return
Answer: B
2. Click the Exhibit button.
Which air distribution method is displayed in this picture?
A. Fully ducted supply, flooded return
B. Flooded supply, fully ducted return
C. Flooded supply, locally ducted return
D. Locally ducted supply, flooded return

Answer: A
3. Click the Exhibit button.
Which air distribution method is displayed in the exhibit?
A. Flooded supply, flooded return
B. Flooded supply, fully ducted return
C. Flooded supply, locally ducted return
D. Locally ducted supply, flooded return
Answer: A
4. What is the highest cost UPS configuration?
A. System + system
B. Parallel redundant
C. Isolated redundant
D. Distributed redundant
Answer: A
5. What is the difference between an undervoltage and a sag?
A. A sag lasts less time than an undervoltage condition.
B. A sag has less of a voltage drop than an undervoltage condition.
C. A sag is due to downstream loads and undervoltage is due to the power source.
D. A sag occurs in low voltage distribution and undervoltage occurs in high voltage distribution.
Answer: A

6. What is required for the transfer of heat from one object to another?
A. A difference in airflow
B. A difference in volume
C. A difference in pressure
D. A difference in temperature
Answer: D
7. What does the CFD acronym stand for?
A. Certified Field Dichotomy
B. Circular Flow Determination
C. Computational Finite Deviation
D. Computational Fluid Dynamics
Answer: D
8. The rear of an IT equipment rack is fitted with a duct that is connected to a drop ceiling plenum; the
plenum is connected by a duct to the perimeter CRAC unit. The CRAC unit discharges air into a raised
floor. The IT equipment rack is located above a hole in the raised floor which allows conditioned air to
enter the rack.
This is an example of which type of air distribution system?
A. Flooded supply, fully ducted return
B. Locally ducted supply, flooded return
C. Flooded supply, locally ducted return
D. Fully ducted supply, fully ducted return
Answer: D
9. Cooling towers are a typical component of which heat rejection system?
A. Water cooled system
B. Glycol cooled system
C. Air cooled split system
D. Air cooled self-contained system
Answer: A
10. Which type of humidification system uses quartz lamps extended over an open pool of water to release
water vapor?
A. Infrared humidifier
B. Ultrasonic humidifier
C. Electromagnetic humidifier
D. Steam canister humidifier
Answer: A
11. What is an advantage of choosing a four-post open frame rack over a two-post open frame rack?
A. Lower cost
B. Smaller footprint
C. Easier assembly
D. Increased strength
Answer: D
12. How do enclosures improve rack system cooling?
A. By improving natural air flow
B. By improving fire suppression
C. By allowing hot and cold air to mix together
D. By preventing hot and cold air from mixing together
Answer: D
13. An infrared scan of cabling can detect what two problems? (Choose two.)
A. An overloaded circuit
B. A loose connection
C. Compatibility errors
D. Electrical interference
Answer: AB
14. What are three benefits of Inergen? (Choose three.)
A. It is non-conductive.
B. It has zero ozone depletion potential.
C. It has a low pressure delivery system.
D. It requires less storage tanks than Halon.
E. It is safe to discharge in an occupied area.
Answer: ABE
15. What is a component of the network-critical physical infrastructure (NCPI)?
A. Voice over IP
B. Fire protection
C. Office supplies
D. Desktop application software
Answer: B
16. What is an example of a standard building management system (BMS) protocol?
A. IPV6
B. TCP/IP
C. MODBUS
D. 10/100 BASE-T
Answer: C
17. What does the term “5-nines” availability mean?
A. 5 minutes of downtime per year
B. 9 minutes of downtime per year
C. 14 minutes of downtime per year
D. 45 minutes of downtime per year
Answer: A

18. What would be a comprehensive strategy for protecting the most critical racks of a data center?
A. Key access to the critical racks
B. Video camera pointed directly at critical racks
C. Iris scanner at the entrance to the data center
D. Nested security perimeters with racks at the innermost level
Answer: D
19. What are three advantages of biometric access control? (Choose three.)
A. Cannot be lost
B. Inexpensive to deploy
C. Difficult to fool the sensor
D. Cannot be shared with others
E. Always correctly identifies the user
Answer: ACD
20. Requiring frequent password changes can compromise security because _____.
A. Users tend to write down frequently changed passwords
B. It makes the password database an easier target for hackers
C. It makes it harder for legitimate users to access their own data
D. It burdens the IT help desk with requests for forgotten or expired passwords
Answer: A

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12.24.09

Free Testking HP0-P20 HP-UX 11i v3 System Exam Braindump

Free Testking HP0-P20 HP-UX 11i v3 System Exam Braindump, HP0-P20 Exam. HP-UX 11i v3 System Administration.
2. What are the main components of DNS? (Select three.)
A. Name Servers
B. Hierarchical Name Space
C. Name Clients
D. Resolvers
E. ARPA Name Space
F. Start of Authority (SOA)
Answer: ABD
3. Which command shows the general status of a Serviceguard cluster?
A. cmclstat
B. cmshowcluster
C. cmviewcl
D. cmviewconf
E. cmgetconf
Answer: C
4. Which servers support HP-UX 11i v3? (Select two.)
A. HP9000 PA-RISC servers
B. HP ProLiant servers
C. HP Integrity servers
D. HP Integrity NonStop servers
Answer: AC
5. Which commands, run from the VM Host command line, can be used to turn on an Integrity Virtual
Machine? (Select two.)
A. hpvmrun -P vm1
B. hpvmconsole -P vm1 start
C. hpvmconsole -P vm1 -c pc -on
D. hpvmmodify -P vm1 start
E. hpvmconsole -P vm1 -init
F. hpvmstart -P vm1
Answer: CF

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12.24.09

Free Testking 000-002 Tivoli Storage Productivity Center V4.1 Exam Braindump

Free Testking 000-002 Tivoli Storage Productivity Center V4.1 Exam Braindump, 000-002 Exam IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center V4.1 Implementation.
Section 1 – Planning

Given the customer’s business objectives and storage environment, based on the preinstallation Technical and Delivery Assessment (TDA) document (formerly Solution Assurance Review), gather and analyze the customer’s storage management requirements so that a solution that meets customer expectations can be implemented.