Free Testking Network Appliance NAC-NIE NS0-501 Engineer-SAN Exam Braindump
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1.What is the approximate capacity overhead of a cloned flexible volume at creation?
A.200%
B.100%
C.50%
D.0%
Correct:D
2.Which command would collect information about the firmware version running on a Brocade
4100 FC switch?
A.version
B.switchshow
C.show version
D.show switch
Correct:A
3.What is the read/write pattern for copyonwrite
(COW) based snapshots?
A.Readwriteread
B.Writereadwrite
C.Readwritewrite
D.Writeread
Correct:C
4.A customer has a 4node
SUN cluster configuration, and each node has 2 dualported
HBAs.
What is the minimum number of igroups that need be created to map a LUN to the cluster?
A.1
B.2
C.4
D.8
Correct:A
5.What could an E_Port represent?
A.A Fibre Channel hub’s connection to the FC switch.
B.A storage controller’s connection to the FC switch.
C.An interswitch
link connection between FC switches.
D.An unused port on the FC switch.
Correct:C
6.An ACME Corporation user has lost a file on their NetApp SAN. This user can go to
the .snapshot directory and retrieve the file. (True or False?)
A.True
B.False
Correct:B
7.ACME corporation currently has a NetApp Fibre Channel blockbased
solution. With limited
budget and resources, they want to create a new disaster recovery site that utilizes a NetApp
solution. The optimal solution would include ________.
A.SnapMover and Fibre Channel at the Disaster Recovery site for all hosts.
B.SnapMirror and iSCSI at the Disaster Recovery site for all hosts.
C.a combination of Fibre Channel and iSCSI.
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D.MetroCluster and NAS.
Correct:B
8.ACME Corporation has a NetApp 2Gb solution, and they only want to upgrade to 4Gb switches.
They would ___________.
A.not be able to do this because 4Gb is not supported.
B.add 4Gb HBAs into each controller and 4Gb HBAs to all systems.
C.add 4Gb HBAs into each controller.
D.replace the existing 2Gb switches.
Correct:D
9.Identify the SAN topology that provides best performance and scalability.
A.cascade
B.coreedge
C.full mesh
D.partial mesh
Correct:B
10.You connect a host to a Netapp storage system over a FC switch. The host has its boot
volumes on the storage systems. What do you have to configure?
A.persistent binding
B.port zoning
C.soft zoning
D.WWN zoning
Correct:A
11.What would you use to share a data LUN among mulitple servers where each server has
simultaneous write access?
A.hostbased
clustering
B.hostbased
multipathing
C.hostbased
volume manager
D.hostbased
clustered file system
Correct:D
12.Which THREE are performance tuning parameters available for Fibre Channel HBAs on a host?
(Choose three.)
A.HBA queue depth
B.Fibre Channel speed
C.frame size
D.LUN device ID
Correct:A B C
13.ACME Corporation is in the midst of deploying several applications over Fibre Channel. A
single NetApp volume will host three 100GB LUNs. The customer will not be using snapshots.
Select the minimum volume size required.
A.100GB
B.300GB
C.600GB
D.660GB
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Correct:B
14.When planning an installation of SnapDrive for UNIX 2.1 on Solaris 9, which is true?
A.SnapDrive for UNIX 2.1 can create volume groups that span multiple storage controllers.
B.SnapDrive for UNIX 2.1 can manage a boot disk, root volume groups, and system disks.
C.SnapDrive for UNIX 2.1 can create a striped volume group made up of different LUNs on the same
storage controller but in different aggregates.
D.SnapDrive for UNIX 2.1 can take a snapshot of volume groups that span multiple storage controllers.
Correct:D
15.When running in standby cfmode, if the host can no longer access the LUNs from Controller A
after an array controller failover to Controller B, what TWO things should you check? (Choose
two.)
A.The cabling between the storage controller and the switch.
B.The zoning on the switch.
C.The LUN masking on the storage controller.
D.The persistent bindings.
Correct:A B
16.NFS can access a mapped LUN on a NetApp solution for file read/write access. (True or False?)
A.True
B.False
Correct:B
17.On a Windows 2003 with the NetApp DSM MPIO environment with a FAS6000 HA configuration
running single_image cfmode, when you pull a cable, the I/O will failover. When you reinsert
the
cable, the I/O return to the original port. (True or False?)
A.True
B.False
Correct:A
18.SnapDrive for UNIX requires RSH access to the NetApp storage controller. (True or False?)
A.True
B.False
Correct:B
19.For FAS 270C, what are the cfmodes supported from Data ONTAP 7.1 onwards?
A.dual_fabric only
B.dual_fabric and single_image
C.dual_fabric and partner
D.dual_fabric and standby
Correct:B
20.In a singleimage
cfmode, what is the minimum required version of Data ONTAP?
A.6X
B.7.0.5
C.7.1
D.7.2
Correct:C
21.A LUN on the NetApp storage controller can be accessed by either FCP or iSCSI. (True or
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False?)
A.True
B.False
Correct:A
22.ACME Corp. is about to implement a disaster recovery project across two sites. Which THREE
issues can impact the performance of the solution? (Choose three.)
A.The distance between sites.
B.The RAID implementation.
C.The link between the remote sites.
D.The I/O characteristics of the application.
Correct:A C D
23.A 100GB thinly provisioned LUN is allocated to a Windows host. A 100GB of data is written into
the LUN. The current capacity utilization on the disk array as well as the host is 100%. 50GB of
data is deleted from the LUN. Determine the current capacity utilization on the disk array as well
as the host.
A.50% on the host, 100% on the disk array
B.100% on the host, 50% on the disk array
C.50% on the host, 50% on the disk array
D.100% on the host, 100% on the disk array
Correct:A
24.Which license do you have to install on the NetApp appliance in order to use SnapDrive?
A.NFS license
B.FCP license
C.CIFS license
D.Cluster license
Correct:B
25.Which hostbased
tool will enable you to stripe a LUN across multiple NetApp controllers?
A.multipathing software
B.hostbased
file system
C.hostbased
volume manager
D.HBA driver
Correct:C
26.What is the minimum size for a Windows 2003 LUN?
A.10 MB
B.20 MB
C.31.5 MB
D.50 MB
Correct:C
27.Which command will show that you have connected the right Brocade switches in the fabric?
A.fabricshow
B.switchshow
C.topologyshow
D.configshow
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Correct:A
28.Determine the appropriate FC topology based on the diagram below.
A.pointtopoint
B.switched fabric
C.arbitrated loop
D.ring
Correct:B
29.In Data ONTAP 7.2, which is mapped to a portset?
A.WWPN
B.LUN
C.igroup
D.volume
Correct:C
30.A customer has to purchase a CIFS license in order to use SnapDrive in a Windows
environment. (True or False?)
A.True
B.False
Correct:B
1. A company has deployed a NetApp dual controller FAS3100 series with iSCSI. Currently, there are five
Windows servers and three Novell NetWare servers connected to the IP SAN. The customer wants to
connect an HP-UX server to the IP SAN.
Which cfmode allows all operating systems to co-exist in the IP SAN?
A. single_image
B. standby
C. cfmode not applicable
D. dual_fabric
Answer: C
2. Click the Exhibit button.
A Solaris 10 host with VERITAS Storage Foundation 4.1 is FCP attached to a FAS3140 high availability
storage system running single image cfmode.
Using the diagram shown, which ports will be considered active by VERITAS DMP using the NetApp ASL to
a LUN on controller 1 mapped to host 1?
A. Port 0b on controller 1 only
B. Port 0d on controller 1 only
C. Port 0b and 0d on controller 1 only
D. Ports 0b and 0d on both controller 1 and controller 2
Answer: C
3. For which four operations would you use igroup throttles on a NetApp storage solution? (Choose four.)
A. to assign a specific percentage of the queue resources on each physical port to the igroup
B. to manage pathing to the LUNs
C. to reserve a minimum percentage of queue resources for a specific igroup
D. to limit the number of concurrent I/O requests an initiator can send to the storage system
E. to restrict an igroup to a maximum percentage of use
F. to manage space reclamation
Answer: ACDE
4. Which command do you use to see the rate of change between two successive Snapshot copies in a
flexible volume in Data ONTAP?
A. snap diff
B. snap calculate
C. snap delta
D. snap space
Answer: C
5. Which utility on Windows 2003 and Windows 2008 can be used to collect information about firmware and
driver versions for an Emulex LP1xxxx/LPe1xxx HBA?
A. EMutil
B. SANutil
C. fcp config
D. SANsurfer
E. HBAnywhere
Answer: E
6. Which utility on Solaris 10 can be used to collect information about firmware and driver versions for an
Emulex LP1xxxx/LPe1xxxx HBA?
A. EMutil
B. SANutil
C. hbainfo
D. SANsurfer
E. HBAnywhere
Answer: E
7. Which utility on Solaris 10 can be used to collect information about firmware and driver versions for a
Qlogic QLAxxx/QLExxxx HBA?
A. EMutil
B. SANutil
C. cfgadmin
D. SANsurfer
E. HBAnywhere
Answer: D
8. An organization currently has a NetApp Fibre Channel block-based solution. With limited budget and
resources, they want to create a new disaster recovery site that utilizes a NetApp solution.
What would the optimal solution include?
A. SnapMover and Fibre Channel at the disaster recovery site for all hosts
B. SnapMirror and iSCSI at the disaster recovery site for all hosts
C. Fibre Channel at both locations using ftp to replicate storage
D. MetroCluster and NAS
Answer: B
9. A company has a Fibre Channel environment and wants to connect a new host in a remote data center
using 50/125um OM2 multi-mode fiber cable and needs to support 2 Gb speeds.
What is the maximum distance of the cable run supported in this situation?
A. 50/125um OM2 multi-mode fiber cable supports up to 500 meters at 2 Gb.
B. 50/125um OM2 multi-mode fiber cable supports up to 10000 meters at 2 Gb.
C. 50/125um OM2 multi-mode fiber cable supports up to 150 meters at 2 Gb.
D. 50/125um OM2 multi-mode fiber cable supports up to 300 meters at 2 Gb.
Answer: D
10. Click the Exhibit button.
Given the information provided in the diagram, what is the appropriate FC topology?
A. point-to-point
B. switched fabric
C. arbitrated loop
D. ring
Answer: B
1. Which utility on Windows 2003 and Windows 2008 can be used to collect information about firmware and driver versions for an Emulex LP1xxxx/LPe1xxx HBA?
A. EMutil
B. SANutil
C. fcp config
D. SANsurfer
E. HBAnywhere
Answer: E
2. For which four operations would you use igroup throttles on a NetApp storage solution? (Choose four.)
A. to assign a specific percentage of the queue resources on each physical port to the igroup
B. to manage pathing to the LUNs
C. to reserve a minimum percentage of queue resources for a specific igroup
D. to limit the number of concurrent I/O requests an initiator can send to the storage system
E. to restrict an igroup to a maximum percentage of use
F. to manage space reclamation
Answer: ACDE
3. Click the Exhibit button.
A Solaris 10 host with VERITAS Storage Foundation 4.1 is FCP attached to a FAS3140 high availability storage system running single image cfmode.
Using the diagram shown, which ports will be considered active by VERITAS DMP using the NetApp ASL to a LUN on controller 1 mapped to host 1?
A. Port 0b on controller 1 only
B. Port 0d on controller 1 only
C. Port 0b and 0d on controller 1 only
D. Ports 0b and 0d on both controller 1 and controller 2
Answer: C
4. Which utility on Solaris 10 can be used to collect information about firmware and driver versions for an Emulex LP1xxxx/LPe1xxxx HBA?
A. EMutil
B. SANutil
C. hbainfo
D. SANsurfer
E. HBAnywhere
Answer: E
5. Which utility on Solaris 10 can be used to collect information about firmware and driver versions for a Qlogic QLAxxx/QLExxxx HBA?
A. EMutil
B. SANutil
C. cfgadmin
D. SANsurfer
E. HBAnywhere
Answer: D
6. A company has deployed a NetApp dual controller FAS3100 series with iSCSI. Currently, there are five Windows servers and three Novell NetWare servers connected to the IP SAN. The customer wants to connect an HP-UX server to the IP SAN.
Which cfmode allows all operating systems to co-exist in the IP SAN?
A. single_image
B. standby
C. cfmode not applicable
D. dual_fabric
Answer: C
7. An organization currently has a NetApp Fibre Channel block-based solution. With limited budget and resources, they want to create a new disaster recovery site that utilizes a NetApp solution.
What would the optimal solution include?
A. SnapMover and Fibre Channel at the disaster recovery site for all hosts
B. SnapMirror and iSCSI at the disaster recovery site for all hosts
C. Fibre Channel at both locations using ftp to replicate storage
D. MetroCluster and NAS
Answer: B
8. Which command do you use to see the rate of change between two successive Snapshot copies in a flexible volume in Data ONTAP?
A. snap diff
B. snap calculate
C. snap delta
D. snap space
Answer: C
Free Testking FileMaker 10 FM0-304 Developer Essentials Exam Bootcamp
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1. Which two statements are true about the [Full Access] privilege set in a FileMaker Pro 10 database? (Choose two.)
A. It must be assigned to at least one account.
B. It is the only privilege set that can use Custom Functions.
C. It is the only privilege set that can view the Relationships Graph.
D. It can be deleted only if another full access privilege set has been created.
Answer: AC
2. According to the FileMaker Server Configuration Guide, which two hard drive configurations are considered
acceptable best practices for storage of hosted databases? (Choose two.)
A. RAID 1
B. RAID 0
C. RAID 1+0
D. RAID 5
Answer: CD
3. A table in a FileMaker Pro 10 database has a field CompanyName of type Text. The following field validation
options are set for this field:
Validate data in this field only during data entry
Allow user to override during data entry
Require not empty
Display custom message if validation fails
A user imports a set of records into this table. Some records have no value in the CompanyName field.
What will occur?
A. All of the records will be imported. No error message will be displayed.
B. All of the records will be imported. The user will also see the custom error message.
C. None of the records will be imported. The user will also see the specified custom error message.
D. All records with a value for CompanyName will be imported. The user will also see the specified custom error
message.
E. All records with a value for CompanyName will be imported. The user will see an error dialog from the FileMaker
Pro application stating that some records could not be imported due to errors, along with a count of those records.
Answer: A
4. A FileMaker Pro 10 database contains the following two scripts:
Script A:
Set Variable [$$varFoo; Value:Get ( ScriptParameter)]
Perform Script ["Script B"; Parameter: $$varFoo / 2]
Show Custom Dialog [$$varFoo]
Script B:
Set Variable [$counterStart; Value:Get ( ScriptParameter)]
Set Variable [$counter; Value:$counterStart]
Set Variable [$x; Value:1]
Loop
Set Variable [$$varFoo, Value:$$varFoo + $x]
Set Variable [$x; Value:$x + 1]
Set Variable [$counter; Value:$counter-1]
Exit Loop If [$counter < .5 * $counterStart]
End Loop
Exit Script [Result:$$varFoo]
With a Script Parameter of 11 passed into Script A, what result is shown in the custom dialog when Script A
completes?
A. 11
B. 12
C. 14
D. 17
E. 34
Answer: D
5. Given the following formula:
Case (
PatternCount (Name ; ” ” ) > 2 ; RightWords (Name ; 2) ;
Position (Name ; ” ” ; 1 ; 1 ) > 0 ; LeftWords (Name ; 2) ;
MiddleWords (Name ; 2 ; 2)
)
If the field Name contains “John Q. Adams”, what will the formula return?
A. John Q
B. John Q.
C. Q Adams
D. Q. Adams
Answer: A
6. Given the following Relationships Graph:w0VFM10256Y The users want to view a list of unique product records
purchased by a found set of customers from the state of NY.
If the data in the system supports this request and there are no changes to the Relationships Graph, which two
techniques successfully accomplish this? (Choose two.)
A. On a layout based on Customer, include a portal based on the Product table occurrence. Find where State = “NY”.
B. On a layout based on Customer, Find where State = “NY”. Navigate to a layout based on the Products table.
Select the menu Records > Saved Finds and choose “NY” under Recent Finds.
C. On a layout based on Customer, Find where State = “NY”. Then run a script with the step Go To Related Records
[ ], using Match all records in current found set to navigate to the desired set of Product records.
D. Run a script from a special Customer layout that performs a Copy All Records/Requests[ ] script step, then
navigates to a Product layout including a Customer portal, uses Paste[ ] into a Find request, and finally Perform Find
[ ] to result in the desired found set.
E. Use a script to loop through the found set of Customer records, assembling a set of ID values into a global variable
$$customers. Navigate to a layout based on Products and in Find Mode enter the Customer::State field. Choose the
menu Requests > Paste Requests and specify State = $$customers. Click OK to perform the Find.
Answer: BC
7. What is the maximum allowable depth of the call stack at any point in a FileMaker Pro 10 Advanced custom
function?
A. 8,000 calls
B. 10,000 calls
C. 16,000 calls
D. 50,000 calls
Answer: B
8. What is the maximum theoretical file size for a FileMaker Pro 10 file?
A. 2 Gigabytes
B. 4 Gigabytes
C. 8 Gigabytes
D. 2 Terabytes
E. 8 Terabytes
Answer: E
9. Which three are capabilities of the Save Records as PDF script step? (Choose three.)
A. append to existing PDF
B. specify email recipients
C. create a “PDF Form” document
D. create a directory to export a PDF document into
E. create a PDF based on a layout with a blank record
F. specify a PDF name by referencing a variable ($variable)
Answer: AEF
10. What is the maximum number of recursive calls that can be made utilizing a custom function in FileMaker Pro 10
Advanced?
A. 10,000
B. 32,000
C. 50,000
D. 64,000
Answer: C
11. A script saves a group of records as a PDF. The resulting file needs to be saved on a user’s desktop and the
filename must contain that person’s name along with the current date (without additional user input).
How should the output file be specified in the script step?
A. Use a file path that references a variable containing the desired filename and path.
B. Use a file path that references a globally stored field containing the desired filename and path.
C. Use a file path defined by a calculation formula that uses both Get (DesktopPath) and the Get (UserName)
functions.
D. Use a file path that references a calculation field that uses both Get (DesktopPath) and the Get (UserName)
functions.
Answer: A
12. What is the theoretical maximum record count in FileMaker Pro 10 file?
A. 100 million records
B. 4 billion records
C. 8 trillion records
D. 64 quadrillion records
E. 128 quadrillion records
Answer: D
13. Which two events can activate an OnObjectModify script trigger? (Choose two.)
A. selecting a checkbox
B. scrolling in a portal
C. scrolling in a text field
D. switching tabs in a tab control
E. clicking a link displayed in a Web Viewer
Answer: AD
14. What is a reason to use the Let() function in a formula for a FileMaker Pro 10 calculation field?
A. to limit the iterations of a Loop() function used in the formula
B. to modify data in a text field referenced elsewhere in the formula
C. to define a custom function that can be used in other calculation formulas
D. to set a global variable $$var that can be used elsewhere (e.g. within a script)
Answer: D
15. What is the maximum size of binary data that can be stored in a container field?
A. 1 gigabytes
B. 2 gigabytes
C. 4 gigabytes
D. 8 gigabytes
Answer: C
1. A script saves a group of records as a PDF. The resulting file needs to be saved on a user’s desktop and
the filename must contain that person’s name along with the current date (without additional user input).
How should the output file be specified in the script step?
A. Use a file path that references a variable containing the desired filename and path.
B. Use a file path that references a globally stored field containing the desired filename and path.
C. Use a file path defined by a calculation formula that uses both Get (DesktopPath) and the Get
(UserName) functions.
D. Use a file path that references a calculation field that uses both Get (DesktopPath) and the Get
(UserName) functions.
Answer: A
2. A table in a FileMaker Pro 10 database has a field CompanyName of type Text. The following field
validation options are set for this field:
Validate data in this field only during data entry
Allow user to override during data entry
Require not empty
Display custom message if validation fails
A user imports a set of records into this table. Some records have no value in the CompanyName field.
What will occur?
A. All of the records will be imported. No error message will be displayed.
B. All of the records will be imported. The user will also see the custom error message.
C. None of the records will be imported. The user will also see the specified custom error message.
D. All records with a value for CompanyName will be imported. The user will also see the specified custom
error message.
E. All records with a value for CompanyName will be imported. The user will see an error dialog from the
FileMaker Pro application stating that some records could not be imported due to errors, along with a count
of those records.
Answer: A
3. Given the following Relationships Graph:w0VFM10256Y The users want to view a list of unique product
records purchased by a found set of customers from the state of NY.
If the data in the system supports this request and there are no changes to the Relationships Graph, which
two techniques successfully accomplish this? (Choose two.)
A. On a layout based on Customer, include a portal based on the Product table occurrence. Find where
State = “NY”.
B. On a layout based on Customer, Find where State = “NY”. Navigate to a layout based on the Products
table. Select the menu Records > Saved Finds and choose “NY” under Recent Finds.
C. On a layout based on Customer, Find where State = “NY”. Then run a script with the step Go To
Related Records[ ], using Match all records in current found set to navigate to the desired set of Product
records.
D. Run a script from a special Customer layout that performs a Copy All Records/Requests[ ] script step,
then navigates to a Product layout including a Customer portal, uses Paste[ ] into a Find request, and finally
Perform Find[ ] to result in the desired found set.
E. Use a script to loop through the found set of Customer records, assembling a set of ID values into a
global variable $$customers. Navigate to a layout based on Products and in Find Mode enter the
Customer::State field. Choose the menu Requests > Paste Requests and specify State = $$customers.
Click OK to perform the Find.
Answer: BC
4. Which two events can activate an OnObjectModify script trigger? (Choose two.)
A. selecting a checkbox
B. scrolling in a portal
C. scrolling in a text field
D. switching tabs in a tab control
E. clicking a link displayed in a Web Viewer
Answer: AD
5. What is a reason to use the Let() function in a formula for a FileMaker Pro 10 calculation field?
A. to limit the iterations of a Loop() function used in the formula
B. to modify data in a text field referenced elsewhere in the formula
C. to define a custom function that can be used in other calculation formulas
D. to set a global variable $$var that can be used elsewhere (e.g. within a script)
Answer: D
6. Given the following formula:
Case (
PatternCount (Name ; ” ” ) > 2 ; RightWords (Name ; 2) ;
Position (Name ; ” ” ; 1 ; 1 ) > 0 ; LeftWords (Name ; 2) ;
MiddleWords (Name ; 2 ; 2)
)
If the field Name contains “John Q. Adams”, what will the formula return?
A. John Q
B. John Q.
C. Q Adams
D. Q. Adams
Answer: A
7. A FileMaker Pro 10 database contains the following two scripts:
Script A:
Set Variable [$$varFoo; Value:Get ( ScriptParameter)]
Perform Script ["Script B"; Parameter: $$varFoo / 2]
Show Custom Dialog [$$varFoo]
Script B:
Set Variable [$counterStart; Value:Get ( ScriptParameter)]
Set Variable [$counter; Value:$counterStart]
Set Variable [$x; Value:1]
Loop
Set Variable [$$varFoo, Value:$$varFoo + $x]
Set Variable [$x; Value:$x + 1]
Set Variable [$counter; Value:$counter-1]
Exit Loop If [$counter < .5 * $counterStart]
End Loop
Exit Script [Result:$$varFoo]
With a Script Parameter of 11 passed into Script A, what result is shown in the custom dialog when Script A
completes?
A. 11
B. 12
C. 14
D. 17
E. 34
Answer: D
8. Which two statements are true about the [Full Access] privilege set in a FileMaker Pro 10 database?
(Choose two.)
A. It must be assigned to at least one account.
B. It is the only privilege set that can use Custom Functions.
C. It is the only privilege set that can view the Relationships Graph.
D. It can be deleted only if another full access privilege set has been created.
Answer: AC
9. According to the FileMaker Server Configuration Guide, which two hard drive configurations are
considered acceptable best practices for storage of hosted databases? (Choose two.)
A. RAID 1
B. RAID 0
C. RAID 1+0
D. RAID 5
Answer: CD
10. Which three are capabilities of the Save Records as PDF script step? (Choose three.)
A. append to existing PDF
B. specify email recipients
C. create a “PDF Form” document
D. create a directory to export a PDF document into
E. create a PDF based on a layout with a blank record
F. specify a PDF name by referencing a variable ($variable)
Answer: AEF
11. What is the maximum theoretical file size for a FileMaker Pro 10 file?
A. 2 Gigabytes
B. 4 Gigabytes
C. 8 Gigabytes
D. 2 Terabytes
E. 8 Terabytes
Answer: E
12. What is the theoretical maximum record count in FileMaker Pro 10 file?
A. 100 million records
B. 4 billion records
C. 8 trillion records
D. 64 quadrillion records
E. 128 quadrillion records
Answer: D
13. What is the maximum number of recursive calls that can be made utilizing a custom function in
FileMaker Pro 10 Advanced?
A. 10,000
B. 32,000
C. 50,000
D. 64,000
Answer: C
14. What is the maximum allowable depth of the call stack at any point in a FileMaker Pro 10 Advanced
custom function?
A. 8,000 calls
B. 10,000 calls
C. 16,000 calls
D. 50,000 calls
Answer: B
15. What is the maximum size of binary data that can be stored in a container field?
A. 1 gigabytes
B. 2 gigabytes
C. 4 gigabytes
D. 8 gigabytes
Answer: C
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COG-200 Test information:
Number of questions: 94
Time allowed in minutes: 120
Required passing score: 65%
COG-200 Test languages: English
1. The administrator has generated a group adjustment company (GAC). Which of the following actions will
a user be able to perform with the GAC?
A. Eliminate investments using automatic journals.
B. Enter reported value adjustments using a data entry form.
C. Enter data into group journals.
D. Create company journals.
Answer: C
2. When is a group company used?
A. When manual journals are needed.
B. When many parent companies are needed.
C. When consolidated figures need to be stored.
D. When automatic journals need to be created.
Answer: C
3. When creating a company, the administrator selects a consolidation type. What does the consolidation
type allow the administrator to do?
A. Use the same company in different structures.
B. Create separate local currency on subsidiary.
C. Create accounts.
D. Create specific dimensions.
Answer: A
4. How can an administrator validate company structures to ensure that they meet the application’s rules?
A. Verify Structures menu
B. Validate Data menu
C. Company structure log file
D. Consolidation Types – Define menu
Answer: A
5. When using a non-manual consolidation type, when would the administrator update the consolidation
structure?
A. When importing investments for a parent company.
B. When changing the company structure.
C. When adding an account.
D. When entering period data.
Answer: B
6. An administrator is setting up an account structure for a Controller application. The administrator is going
to reconcile the values in account 8999 (Profit and Loss for the Year) against those in account 2099 (Net
Profit). In the screen capture below, what does the + code indicate?
A. This year’s closing balance will be copied during reconciliation.
B. The previous year’s closing balance will be copied during reconciliation.
C. Reconciliation will be performed for the same period and actuality.
D. Reconciliation will be performed to the previous year’s closing balance.
Answer: C
7. An administrator wants to make it easier for end users to enter data into account 1310 (Investments in
Subsidiaries) by enabling the investment register. What investments code must the administrator specify for
this account?
A. I – in Group Companies
B. E – in External Companies
C. J – Intercompany with Transaction Currency
D. M – Intercompany with Margin %
Answer: A
8. A Controller administrator wants to track the changes between opening and closing balances of goodwill.
What type of account must the administrator create?
A. Income statement account
B. Movement account
C. Intercompany account
D. Cash account
Answer: B
9. Before movement accounts can be generated, where must the administrator enable the system for
movement accounts prior to their creation?
A. Define Company Structure window
B. Define Account Structure window, Overview tab
C. General Configuration dialog box, General 2 tab
D. Shareholdings and Investments window
Answer: C
10. An administrator wants to create movement accounts to track changes between the opening and
closing balances of account 1200 (Machinery and Equipment). What must the administrator attach to
account 1200 in order to generate these movement accounts?
A. Base accounts
B. Group journals
C. Movement extensions
D. Automatic journals
Answer: C
11. An administrator wants to create a non-integrated movement account to track the sale of buildings.
Which of the following is a valid account type for this movement account?
A. C – Expenses
B. R – Statistical account debit balance sheet account
C. E – Equity
D. I – Intercompany without Transaction Currency
Answer: B
12. An administrator wants to create an integrated movement account to track the purchase of machinery
and equipment. Which of the following is a valid account type for this movement account?
A. L – Liabilities
B. R – Statistical account debit balance sheet account
C. A – Assets
D. U – Statistical account credit profit and loss account
Answer: C
13. When creating an integrated movement account, what must an administrator connect to the base
account?
A. Closing balance of the movement account
B. One or more linked structures
C. One or more company journals
D. Opening balance of the group journal
Answer: A
14. An administrator has created a non-integrated movement account to track the closing balance of
machinery and equipment. What must the administrator specify for both the base account and the
movement account to ensure that the data is entered correctly?
A. Reconciliation code
B. Conversion code
C. Intercompany code
D. Investments code
Answer: A
15. An administrator wants to enhance data analysis by adding extended dimensions to the Controller
application (for example, to represent the products that the company sells). What is the maximum number
of levels for extended dimensions that the administrator can add to the system?
A. 5
B. 4
C. 6
D. 3
Answer: C
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1. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
a) Class constants are public
b) Class constants are being inherited
c) Class constants can omit initialization (default to NULL)
d) Class constants can be initialized by consts
A. a)
B. b)
C. c)
D. d)
Answer: C
2. How many elements does the $matches array contain after the following function call is performed?
preg_match(’/^(d{1,2}([a-z]+))(?:s*)S+ (?=200[0-9])/’, ’21st March
2006′, $matches);
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: C
3. How many times will the function counter() be executed in the following code?
function counter($start, &$stop)
{
if ($stop > $start)
{
return;
}
counter($start–, ++$stop);
}
$start = 5;
$stop = 2;
counter($start, $stop);
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Answer: C
4. Identify the security vulnerability in the following example:
1
2 echo "Welcome, {$_POST['name']}.";
3 ?>
A. SQL Injection
B. Cross-Site Scripting
C. Remote Code Injection
D. None of the above
Answer: B
5. Given the following code, what will be the value of $a?
$a = array(’a', ‘b’);
array_push($a, array(1, 2));
A. array(’a', ‘b’, 1, 2)
B. array(1, 2, ‘a’, ‘b’)
C. array(array(1, 2), ‘a’, ‘b’)
D. None of the above
Answer: D
6. You work for a shared hosting provider, and your supervisor asks you to disable user scripts to dynamically load PHP extensions using the dl() function. How can you do this? (Choose 2)
A. Set enable_dl to Off in the server’s php.ini configuration file.
B. Add dl to the current value of disable_functions in the server’s php.ini configuration file.
C. Add dl to the current value of disable_classes in the server’s php.ini configuration file.
D. Write a custom function called dl(), save it under the name prepend.inc and then set the auto_prepend_file directive to prepend.inc in php.ini.
Answer: AB
7. Type hinting in PHP allows the identification of the following variable types: (Choose 2)
A. String
B. Integer
C. Array
D. Any class or interface type
Answer: CD
8. Which of the following filtering techniques prevents cross-site scripting (XSS) vulnerabilities?
A. Strip all occurrences of the string script.
B. Strip all occurrences of the string javascript.
C. Enable magic_quotes_gpc.
D. None of the above.
Answer: D
1. How many elements does the $matches array contain after the following function call is performed?
preg_match(’/^(d{1,2}([a-z]+))(?:s*)S+ (?=200[0-9])/’, ’21st March
2006′, $matches);
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: C
2. What is the output of the following script?
1
2 class a
3 {
4 public $val;
5 }
6
7 function renderVal (a $a)
8 {
9 if ($a) {
10 echo $a->val;
11 }
12 }
13
14 renderVal (null);
15 ?>
A. A syntax error in the function declaration line
B. An error, because null is not an instance of ‘a’
C. Nothing, because a null value is being passed to renderVal()
D. NULL
Answer: B
3. What DOMElement method should be used to check for availability of a non-namespaced attribute?
A. getAttributeNS()
B. getAttribute()
C. hasAttribute()
D. hasAttributeNS()
Answer: C
4. How many times will the function counter() be executed in the following code?
function counter($start, &$stop)
{
if ($stop > $start)
{
return;
}
counter($start–, ++$stop);
}
$start = 5;
$stop = 2;
counter($start, $stop);
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Answer: C
5. Which of the following can be registered as entry points with a SoapServer instance (choose 3):
A. A single function
B. A single method from a class
C. Multiple functions at once
D. All methods from a class
E. All classes defined in a script
Answer: ACD
6. Which options do you have in PHP to set the expiry date of a session?
A. Set the session.duration directive in php.ini
B. Set session cookie expiry date locally via session_set_cookie_params()
C. Set session expiry date locally via session_cache_expire()
D. None of the above
Answer: D
7. Which of the following filtering techniques prevents cross-site scripting (XSS) vulnerabilities?
A. Strip all occurrences of the string script.
B. Strip all occurrences of the string javascript.
C. Enable magic_quotes_gpc.
D. None of the above.
Answer: D
8. Given the following code, what will be the value of $a?
$a = array(’a', ‘b’);
array_push($a, array(1, 2));
A. array(’a', ‘b’, 1, 2)
B. array(1, 2, ‘a’, ‘b’)
C. array(array(1, 2), ‘a’, ‘b’)
D. None of the above
Answer: D
9. What is the content of $c after the following code has executed?
$a = 2;
$b = 3;
$c = ($a++ * ++$b);
A. 0
B. 5
C. 8
D. 4
Answer:
10. What is the output of the following code?
echo 0×33, ‘ monkeys sit on ‘, 011, ‘ trees.’;
A. 33 monkeys sit on 11 trees.
B. 51 monkeys sit on 9 trees.
C. monkeys sit on trees.
D. 0×33 monkeys sit on 011 trees.
Answer: B
11. You analyze the code of a collegue and see, it uses the function strcasecmp. You try it out to see what it does
and use the following function call:
strcasecmp(’hello my dear!’, ‘Hello my DEAR!’);
The function call returns “0″. What does that mean?
A. String 1 is less than string 2.
B. The strings are considered equal.
C. String 2 is less than string 1.
D. The strings have equal length.
Answer: B
12. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
a) Class constants are public
b) Class constants are being inherited
c) Class constants can omit initialization (default to NULL)
d) Class constants can be initialized by consts
A. a)
B. b)
C. c)
D. d)
Answer: C
13. When a class is defined as final it:
A. Can no longer be extended by other classes.
B. Means methods in the class are not over-loadable.
C. Cannot be defined as such, final is only applicable to object methods.
D. Is no longer iteratable.
Answer: A
14. REST is a(n) …
A. Web service protocol similar to SOAP with a strict XML schema.
B. Principle to exchange information using XML and HTTP.
C. API to get information from social networking sites.
Answer: B
15. A script residing at http://example.com/phpcert/cookies.php contains the following code:
1
2 setcookie('name1', 'value1', time() + 60*60*24, '/');
3 setcookie('name1', 'value2');
4 ?>
The web browser is configured to accept all cookies. How many cookies will be set by this script?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Answer: C
16. Type hinting in PHP allows the identification of the following variable types: (Choose 2)
A. String
B. Integer
C. Array
D. Any class or interface type
Answer: CD
17. You work for a shared hosting provider, and your supervisor asks you to disable user scripts to dynamically load
PHP extensions using the dl() function. How can you do this? (Choose 2)
A. Set enable_dl to Off in the server’s php.ini configuration file.
B. Add dl to the current value of disable_functions in the server’s php.ini configuration file.
C. Add dl to the current value of disable_classes in the server’s php.ini configuration file.
D. Write a custom function called dl(), save it under the name prepend.inc and then set the auto_prepend_file directive
to prepend.inc in php.ini.
Answer: AB
18. Which parts of the text are matched in the following regular expression?
1
2 $text = <<
4 EOT;
5
6 preg_match_all('@b.n?g@', $text, $matches);
7 ?>
A. bang bong bung
B. bang bonged bung
C. big bang bong bung
D. big bang bung
Answer: C
19. Identify the security vulnerability in the following example:
1
2 echo "Welcome, {$_POST['name']}.";
3 ?>
A. SQL Injection
B. Cross-Site Scripting
C. Remote Code Injection
D. None of the above
Answer: B
20. Which of the following data types is implicitly passed by reference in PHP 5 while it is passed by value in PHP 4?
A. Class
B. String
C. Object
D. Array
Answer: C
1. You work for a shared hosting provider, and your supervisor asks you to disable user scripts to
dynamically load PHP extensions using the dl() function. How can you do this? (Choose 2)
A. Set enable_dl to Off in the server’s php.ini configuration file.
B. Add dl to the current value of disable_functions in the server’s php.ini configuration file.
C. Add dl to the current value of disable_classes in the server’s php.ini configuration file.
D. Write a custom function called dl(), save it under the name prepend.inc and then set the
auto_prepend_file directive to prepend.inc in php.ini.
Answer: AB
2. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
a) Class constants are public
b) Class constants are being inherited
c) Class constants can omit initialization (default to NULL)
d) Class constants can be initialized by consts
A. a)
B. b)
C. c)
D. d)
Answer: C
3. Type hinting in PHP allows the identification of the following variable types: (Choose 2)
A. String
B. Integer
C. Array
D. Any class or interface type
Answer: CD
4. How many elements does the $matches array contain after the following function call is performed?
preg_match(’/^(\d{1,2}([a-z]+))(?:\s*)\S+ (?=200[0-9])/’, ’21st March
2006′, $matches);
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: C
5. Given the following code, what will be the value of $a?
$a = array(’a', ‘b’);
array_push($a, array(1, 2));
A. array(’a', ‘b’, 1, 2)
B. array(1, 2, ‘a’, ‘b’)
C. array(array(1, 2), ‘a’, ‘b’)
D. None of the above
Answer: D
6. Which of the following filtering techniques prevents cross-site scripting (XSS) vulnerabilities?
A. Strip all occurrences of the string script.
B. Strip all occurrences of the string javascript.
C. Enable magic_quotes_gpc.
D. None of the above.
Answer: D
7. Identify the security vulnerability in the following example:
1
2 echo "Welcome, {$_POST['name']}.";
3 ?>
A. SQL Injection
B. Cross-Site Scripting
C. Remote Code Injection
D. None of the above
Answer: B
8. How many times will the function counter() be executed in the following code?
function counter($start, &$stop)
{
if ($stop > $start)
{
return;
}
counter($start–, ++$stop);
}
$start = 5;
$stop = 2;
counter($start, $stop);
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Answer: C
9. When a class is defined as final it:
A. Can no longer be extended by other classes.
B. Means methods in the class are not over-loadable.
C. Cannot be defined as such, final is only applicable to object methods.
D. Is no longer iteratable.
Answer: A
10. Which parts of the text are matched in the following regular expression?
1
2 $text = <<
4 EOT;
5
6 preg_match_all('@b.n?g@', $text, $matches);
7 ?>
A. bang bong bung
B. bang bonged bung
C. big bang bong bung
D. big bang bung
Answer: C
11. Which of the following can be registered as entry points with a SoapServer instance (choose 3):
A. A single function
B. A single method from a class
C. Multiple functions at once
D. All methods from a class
E. All classes defined in a script
Answer: ACD
12. What DOMElement method should be used to check for availability of a non-namespaced attribute?
A. getAttributeNS()
B. getAttribute()
C. hasAttribute()
D. hasAttributeNS()
Answer: C
13.Which of the following data types is implicitly passed by reference in PHP 5 while it is passed by value in
PHP 4?
A. Class
B. String
C. Object
D. Array
Answer: C
14. What is the content of $c after the following code has executed?
$a = 2;
$b = 3;
$c = ($a++ * ++$b);
A. 0
B. 5
C. 8
D. 4
Answer:
15. Which options do you have in PHP to set the expiry date of a session?
A. Set the session.duration directive in php.ini
B. Set session cookie expiry date locally via session_set_cookie_params()
C. Set session expiry date locally via session_cache_expire()
D. None of the above
Answer: D
16. A script residing at http://example.com/phpcert/cookies.php contains the following code:
1
2 setcookie('name1', 'value1', time() + 60*60*24, '/');
3 setcookie('name1', 'value2');
4 ?>
The web browser is configured to accept all cookies. How many cookies will be set by this script?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Answer: C
17. You analyze the code of a collegue and see, it uses the function strcasecmp. You try it out to see what it
does and use the following function call:
strcasecmp(’hello my dear!’, ‘Hello my DEAR!’);
The function call returns “0″. What does that mean?
A. String 1 is less than string 2.
B. The strings are considered equal.
C. String 2 is less than string 1.
D. The strings have equal length.
Answer: B
18. What is the output of the following script?
1
2 class a
3 {
4 public $val;
5 }
6
7 function renderVal (a $a)
8 {
9 if ($a) {
10 echo $a->val;
11 }
12 }
13
14 renderVal (null);
15 ?>
A. A syntax error in the function declaration line
B. An error, because null is not an instance of ‘a’
C. Nothing, because a null value is being passed to renderVal()
D. NULL
Answer: B
19. REST is a(n) …
A. Web service protocol similar to SOAP with a strict XML schema.
B. Principle to exchange information using XML and HTTP.
C. API to get information from social networking sites.
Answer: B
20. What is the output of the following code?
echo 0×33, ‘ monkeys sit on ‘, 011, ‘ trees.’;
A. 33 monkeys sit on 11 trees.
B. 51 monkeys sit on 9 trees.
C. monkeys sit on trees.
D. 0×33 monkeys sit on 011 trees.
Answer: B
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Free Testking Adobe ACE 9A0-093 Exam Braindump, Adobe ACE 9A0-093 Exam Adobe® Flash® CS4 Recertification Exam
1. You want to create a light that can be animated along 3D axes but will still keep focus on a specific scene
location while animating.
What should you do?
A. choose Light Settings dialog > Light Type: Spot
B. choose Light Settings dialog > Light Type: Parallel
C. choose Layer > Transform >Auto-Orient > Orient Along Path
D. choose Layer > Transform > Auto-Orient > Orient Towards Point of Interest
Answer: D
2. You want to move a camera along a single axis without moving the Point of Interest. What should you
do?
A. hold down the Shift key while dragging the axis
B. hold down the Alt (Windows) or Option (Mac OS) key while dragging the axis
C. hold down the Ctrl (Windows) or Command (Mac OS) key while dragging the axis
D. hold down the Alt (Windows) + Shift key (Windows) or Option + Shift key (Mac OS) key while dragging
the axis
Answer: C
3. Which statement describes how 3D layers are rendered?
A. 3D layers render layer orientation properties first.
B. 3D layers are rendered according to their z depth value.
C. 3D layers are rendered according to their timeline stacking order.
D. 3D layers are rendered according to the Composition Settings > Rendering Plug-In setting.
Answer: B
4. Which statement about using After Effects OpenGL previewing is true?
A. Layers are limited to 2,000 by 2,000 pixels.
B. OpenGL supports all After Effects blending modes.
C. OpenGL previews are created by using Adaptive Resolution previewing.
D. OpenGL previews are limited only by the amount of installed RAM on the system.
Answer: A
5. You have placed an effect on a 3D layer that has Continuously Rasterize enabled. The layer will NOT
show the effect when casting shadows. What should you do?
A. choose Layer > Pre-compose
B. choose Layer > Preserve Transparency
C. choose Effect > 3D Channel > Depth Matte
D. choose Effect > 3D Channel > 3D Channel Extract
Answer: A
6. You want to slice an image that contains 3D channel information along its z depth values. Which 3D
Channel effect should you use?
A. ID Matte
B. Depth Matte
C. Depth of Field
D. 3D Channel Extract
Answer: B
7. You have selected multiple layers in a composition.
What happens when you choose Animation > Keyframe Assistant > Sequence Layers?
A. All selected layers are moved from their original time positions.
B. The top layer selected in the Timeline window maintains its original time position.
C. The first layer you select in the Timeline window maintains its original time position.
D. The bottom layer selected in the Timeline window maintains its original time position.
Answer: C
8. What happens to the position of layers within a composition when you resize a 320 x 240 composition to
640 x 480?
A. The layers do NOT move.
B. The layers shift according to the anchor setting.
C. The layers shift to the upper-left corner of the composition.
D. The layers shift to the lower-right corner of the composition.
Answer: B
9. You have defined a region of interest in the Composition window. You want to redefine the region of
interest. What should you do?
A. choose View > Look At All Layers
B. choose Composition > Trim Comp to Work Area
C. drag the Region of Interest button into the Composition window and drag the Marquee tool
D. Alt (Windows) or Option (Mac OS) click the Region of Interest button, then drag the marquee in the
Composition window
Answer: D
10. Click the Exhibit button.
The motion path depicted in the exhibit is _____ from A to B and _____ from B to C.
A. faster going; slower
B. slower going; faster
C. accelerating; decelerating
D. decelerating; accelerating
Answer: B
11. Which command should you use to remove a defined area of footage from the Timeline window and
perform a ripple deletion?
A. Edit > Cut
B. Edit > Time Stretch
C. Edit > Lift Work Area
D. Edit > Extract Work Area
Answer: D
12. You want to attach a banner to a moving rectangular area in video footage while simulating 3D. How
should you track the motion?
A. Rotation
B. Rotation and Position
C. Affine Corner Pinning
D. Perspective Corner Pinning
Answer: D
13. Which defines the area in the footage to be tracked when using the Motion Tracking feature?
A. track point
B. attach point
C. search region
D. feature region
Answer: D
14. You have added additional track points to motion footage by using the New Track Point option in the
Tracker Controls palette options menu. Which feature or command can make use of the additional Track
Point data?
A. expressions
B. Track Type > Stabilize
C. Track Type > Perspective corner pin
D. position keyframes set by the Track Motion button
Answer: A
15. Which effects can you apply to a tracked location using the Motion Tracker?
A. keying effects
B. effects with rotation properties
C. effects with position properties
D. effects with text or number properties
Answer: C
16. Which tool should you use to draw a freeform path that will be used as a mask on footage?
A. Pen
B. Brush
C. Ellipse
D. Rectangle
Answer: A
17. Which is an example of a non-drop-frame timecode?
A. 00072
B. 0007+2
C. 4:15:14:07
D. 4;15;14;04
Answer: C
18. You are using Adobe After Effects on the Mac OS. You want to increase the number of frames played
back in RAM preview. What should you do?
A. set the Cache mode to Favor Speed
B. set the Cache mode to Favor Memory
C. increase the Image Cache Size value
D. decrease the Image Cache Size value
Answer: C
19. Which is the default setting for levels in the Audio palette?
A. -96 dB
B. 0 dB
C. 100 dB
D. 120 dB
Answer: B
20.Which After Effects preview option uses the first frame encountered during previewing as a proxy during
previews?
A. Wireframe
B. Adaptive Resolution
C. OpenGL with Static Textures
D. OpenGL with Moving Textures
Answer: C
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Free Citrix 1Y0-613 Access Suite 4.0 Exam Braindump, The Citrix® 1Y0-613 exam is 44 questions long, 120 minutes to take it and a 61% score is needed to pass. The 1Y0-613 exam covers the subjects: Facilitate Project Management, Identify and Assess Access Infrastructure, Assess Server Environment, Assess Security Infrastructure, Identify Directory Services Type, Version and Structure, Assess Presentation Server Implementation and Assess Access Suite 4.0 Products.
This exam is 100% scenario questions. Test-takers MUST have plenty of real-world experience before tackling this exam. The practice exams and study guides from Citrixxperience.com alone will not be enough to pass this exam.
MetaFrame® Presentation Server 4.0 Administrator’s Guide
1Y0-613 Citrix® Access Suite 4.0: Analysis Enablement Guide
Citrix® Password Manager 4.0 Administrator’s Guide
Getting Started with Citrix® Access Gateway 4.2
Access Gateway 4.2 Administrator’s Guide
Access Gateway Pre-installation Checklist
Advanced Access Control for Access Gateway 4.2 Administrator’s Guide
Web Interface Administrator’s Guide
1. Scenario: Your team will provide an assessment of a client’s Access Suite environment, which will then
be followed by the POC (Proof of Concept) and design phases. You met with the Active Directory
Administrator twice. In these meetings, you learned that there are multiple OUs (Organizational Units)
related to the Citrix servers and that different GPOs (Group Policy Objects) apply to each OU. You asked
for more detailed information regarding how they have applied the OU structure and GPO, but it has not yet
been provided. You have raised this issue several times to the customer project manager and even the
project sponsor.
This information is required for both the assessment and upcoming design. What should you do in
response to this delay?
A. You should issue a risk memo to the Active Directory Administrator.
B. You should issue a risk memo to the project manager and project sponsor.
C. You should include this in the Issues section of the weekly project status report.
D. You should conclude the assessment portion of the project and indicate that the information was
unavailable in all areas related to network traffic.
Answer: B
2. Scenario: Your consulting firm must provide an Access Strategy Assessment to a company based on one
Presentation Server farm consisting of 15 servers. The company has instructed the team to review specific
configurations related to printing and Terminal Services profiles to address user complaints. Finally, you are
required to talk directly with several users who have been experiencing issues.
In discussing the Statement of Work with the customer, approximately how much time should be allotted for
the Access Strategy Assessment?
A. 1 – 2 weeks
B. 3 – 4 weeks
C. 2 – 3 business days
D. 14 – 20 business days
Answer: A
3. Scenario: After a meeting with the CIO from your client organization, you learn that they plan to expand
their environmental consulting practice and double in size in the next two years. Six of their Presentation
Servers are used to host a specific application that facilitates writing environmental management plans.
This application is accessed by field consultants through Access Gateway Advanced Edition. Users report
that they are generally satisfied with the current access strategy, although they occasionally experience
connection issues to the file server that houses customer documentation.
They plan on adding two or three additional modules of the application within the next few months. The CIO
has asked you to review their current environment to determine how it can be optimized in order to support
their plans.
Based on the information provided, what is the primary objective of the client organization?
A. Growth
B. Security
C. User connectivity
D. Application deployment
Answer: A
4. Scenario: An enterprise deployed a Presentation Server farm which includes five servers. These servers
were built manually using a documented process. They are planning to expand the environment by one to
two servers per quarter and seek guidance from you regarding how they should facilitate the server build
process.
What should you recommend?
A. They should continue to use the manual process as it is suitable for the provided projections.
B. They should create a base server build based on the operating system, Citrix Presentation Server, and
all applications using a scripting or
cloning tool.
C. They should create a base server build based on the operating system using a scripting or cloning tool.
Citrix Presentation Server and all applications should be deployed using Installation Manager.
D. They should create the base server build based on the operating system and Citrix Presentation Server
using a scripting or cloning tool. All applications should be deployed using Installation Manager.
Answer: D
5. Scenario: You have been asked to assess the Presentation Server environment at a corporation. As
you learn more about the corporation, you find that inconsistencies abound within the environment, and as
a result has led to user frustration and dissatisfaction.
When questioning the administrator of the Presentation Server about the requirements for implementing
changes, he states that he merely informs the other administrators verbally or by e-mail about major
changes, such as a new application or server. Minor changes, such as configuration modifications, are
commonly made as necessary.
Which two recommendations would you make regarding the change control process? (Choose two.)
A. Only two administrators should be allowed to make changes.
B. Administrators should be allowed to make changes only after informing the other administrators.
C. Administrators should be allowed to make changes only after having tested the change thoroughly.
D. Administrators should be allowed to make changes only when following a fully documented process.
Answer: CD
6. Scenario: A construction company has deployed a Presentation Server farm consisting of four servers.
Because of a recent virus attack, they installed Terminal Services-certified anti-virus software on the
Presentation Servers. The anti-virus software that they use has the required features; it checks
continuously for updated patterns and scans all incoming and outgoing files. As a result, the company found
that the number of users per server dropped.
In order to use the anti-virus software effectively and increase the number of users per server, which two
configuration changes should the company implement? (Choose two.)
A. Incoming files should be scanned at all times.
B. Outgoing files should be scanned at all times.
C. Incoming files should be scanned during business hours.
D. Outgoing files should be scanned during business hours.
E. Incoming files should be scanned during non-business hours.
F. Outgoing files should be scanned during non-business hours.
Answer: AF
7. Scenario: A company has engaged your team to review their Citrix Access Suite deployment with a focus
on their security environment. Their Security Manager has advised the Citrix Administrators that corporate
security must be tightened because of a recent leak of corporate information. Based on discussions and
observations, you learned that:
Physical security within the data center is based on card access that is limited to specific individuals.
Administrators use the RDP protocol to remotely access servers. Users cannot access any resources using
RDP.
Web Interface servers and Presentation Servers are located behind the internal firewall.
Access Gateway devices are located in the DMZ.
Two-factor authentication is required for Access Gateway connections.
Pass-through authentication is enabled for users.
Based on these data points, what should you recommend to this company?
A. Pass-through authentication should be disabled.
B. Administrators should be prohibited from using RDP protocol as well.
C. Place an additional Web Interface server in the DMZ for external users only.
D. Two-factor authentication should be disabled for users and a single sign-on solution should be
implemented.
Answer: A
8. Scenario: A company currently has no policy in place to deactivate dismissed users accounts. Users in
this environment have also maintained the same password for the past three (3) years. The company has
been victimized on numerous occasions by criminals and ex-employees who use their passwords and the
passwords of others to steal corporate information and trade it to outsiders.
The IT Manager wants to immediately change every user password, implement identity verification
questions for password security, enforce the change of passwords every 45 days and allow passwords to
be reused once every 36 months.
Based on the assessment of the current environment, which two recommendations would you give to the
company as a means of optimizing their Password Manager environment? (Choose two.)
A. Implement self-service password reset and set it to 45 days.
B. Implement password policies for password expiration settings.
C. Implement identity verification questions to ensure password security.
D. Implement a complex password policy requiring users to use varying characters and numbers.
Answer: BC
9. Scenario: A hospital has Password Manager 4.1 configured for use with four published applications in its
Presentation Server 4.0 farm. As a result of an expansion, which included the acquisition of other hospitals,
the company has added several new applications to enhance the productivity of their employees. The
number of applications that require users to authenticate has increased by 100%. These users also have
no means of changing/resetting their own passwords.
Requirement: The IT Manager wants to meet these requirements:
Applications that require authentication should be configured so that users can save their credentials and
avoid the extra time spent entering them every time in order to use the same applications.
Helpdesk load must be kept at a reduced level by enabling users with capabilities to change their own
primary passwords.
Users will have to change their passwords every eight weeks.
Passwords will have to be a minimum of eight characters and contain at least one numeric character.
Based on the current setup of their environment, which three recommendations would you make to the CIO
as a better means of optimizing Password Manager? (Choose three.)
A. Implement an Active Directory central store to allow pass-through authentication.
B. Implement Password Manager Account Self-Services to allow users to change their own primary
passwords.
C. Implement a Presentation Server policy to allow pass-through authentication to Presentation Server
published applications.
D. Implement a Password Manager policy in order to ensure that users’ passwords are changed according
to the requirements.
E. Implement a Password Manager policy for applications that require credentials so that users’ passwords
are stored after they authenticate for the first time.
Answer: BDE
10. Scenario: A marketing firm has Access Gateway Advanced Edition implemented as the single point of
entry into its Citrix farm. A federal auditing team fined the firm for not complying with security requirements
to protect customers’ privacy. A partner of this firm, in charge of their billing and collection, was discovered
printing personal data belonging to the firm’s customers. This partner needs access to the database to bill
customers but has apparently been using the data for improper purposes.
To resolve the issue, the state auditing team and the marketing firm reached an agreement stating that
policies should be implemented that would prohibit external users from printing certain information.
Based on the stated requirement, which two recommendations should you provide to the IT Manager?
(Choose two.)
A. Implement access to the database application as a file share, but deny the partners.
B. Implement Presentation Server policies that prevent printing, clipboard mapping and drive mapping.
C. Implement access to the database application as a web resource with File Type Association for external
users.
D. Implement access to the database application as a network resource with the No Print action control for
the resource.
E. Implement access to the database application as a network resource with the Live Edit action control for
external users.
Answer: BC
11. Scenario: A company asked you to assess their access strategy, with focus on their remote access
solution. All issues reported relating to remote access have been traced back to network connections or
user permissions.
Click on the exhibit button to view the current configuration of this environment.
Based on the exhibit, what is your assessment of their implementation?
A. The current configuration is adequate.
B. Web Interface should be moved to the internal network.
C. Additional Web Interface redundancy should be deployed
D. Additional Secure Gateway redundancy should be deployed
Answer: A
12. Scenario: A medical company has hired you to assess their current access strategy and make security
and redundancy recommendations to ensure tight control access and availability to their Presentation
Server-based ordering system. The company does not want internal users to have network access to the
DMZ.
At this time, the company cannot purchase additional hardware. Their environment is standardized with
servers of the same hardware configuration, and each server hosts the same set of applications. The
servers are fairly new; they were purchased a year ago. Each Presentation Server has resource utilization
of approximately 40-50% during business hours.
The company allows sales to pre-defined distributors as entered by call center agents, as well as direct
order entry by these distributors.
Click on the exhibit button to view their current setup.
What is your assessment of their current implementation?
A. Web Interface should be removed from the Secure Gateway servers.
B. The current environment represents high security based on the server resources that are available.
C. One of the Presentation Servers should be reallocated exclusively as the data store database server,
and the MSDE data store should be moved to that server.
D. The two Secure Gateway/Web Interface servers should segregate functionality in the DMZ so that
Secure Gateway is located on one server and Web Interface is located on another server.
Answer: B
13. Scenario: A recording company, based in Alaska, recently began an expansion effort and has since
opened a satellite office in Seattle. The company also relocated approximately 15% of its Alaska staff there.
The company’s current environment includes Access Gateway Advanced Edition integrated with
Presentation Server 4.0 in VPN mode as the single point of entry.
Users in the satellite office need to access MetReg, a recording database that contains the company’s
customer data. The company is very careful about allowing access to important information from external
entry points.
The IT team wants to have the capability to provide external users with restricted access to this SQL
database. The IT Director is currently seeking consultation to implement the new access strategy.
Based on the current situation at this company, how would you recommend the IT team optimize their
Access Gateway Advanced Edition environment?
A. Implement access to the database application as a file share but deny the Seattle users read
permissions
B. Implement access to the database application as a web resource with File Type Association for external
users.
C. Implement access to the database application as a network resource with File Type Association for
external users.
D. Implement access to the database application as a web resource with the Download action control for
external users
Answer: B
14. Scenario: A mobile phone company has Citrix Presentation Server 4.0 implemented in its environment.
The CIO has mandated that no single points of failure exist within the environment.
The company has hired you to assess their Citrix environment. Which two statements explain why the
installation of another license server, which will not be clustered, is not necessary? (Choose two.)
A. The addition of another license server will increase IT workload.
B. The addition of another license server will reduce current network bandwidth.
C. The addition of another license server does not address the requirement because two license servers
cannot share the same license file.
D. The addition of another license server will not help the company because Presentation Server users will
still be able to connect for up to 30 days after connection is lost to the license server.
E. The addition of another license server will provide for load balancing. Presentation Servers will have the
option to connect to the least busy license server or the license server closest to them.
Answer: CD
15. Scenario: A company engaged your team to assess their Presentation Server environment. Users in the
remote offices are experiencing slow Presentation Server sessions at certain times during the day; however,
users in the headquarters office do not experience slow sessions. In reviewing their environment, you have
learned that printing policies are configured for all users as listed:
All printers are autocreated
Only the universal printer driver is used.
No printer bandwidth policies are invoked.
No session printing policies are configured.
User devices are running on Win32, WinCE/Pocket PC, and Macintosh devices, all of which use the most
recent and appropriate Presentation Server Client. Which two risks can you associate with the printing
environment? (Choose two.)
A. Network printing is configured.
B. No printer bandwidth policies are invoked.
C. Auto-creating all printers could be taking additional time.
D. Not all clients can take advantage of the latest universal printer driver.
E. Not limiting printer bandwidth is having an adverse impact on all users.
F. The universal printer driver is used if the native driver is unavailable for all users.
Answer: BD
Free Testking Citrix 1Y0-256 Exam Braindump
Free Testking Citrix 1Y0-256 Exam Braindump, The Citrix® 1Y0-256 exam is 73 questions long, 90 minutes to take it and a 67% score is needed to pass. The 1Y0-256 exam covers the Presentation Server architectural and applied concepts, installation and management, configuration of farm, ICA connections, printing and policies, publishing and deploying applications and content, managing loads, and enabling web access to and securing published applications and content.
Recommended preparation for the 1Y0-256 includes the official Citrix® eLearning course CTX-1255AW Citrix® Presentation Server 4.0: Architectural Overview and the official instructor led course CTX-1256AI Citrix® Presentation Server: Administration. Also highly recommended, the 1Y0-256 practice exam and study guide from testking.com.
The 1Y0-256 exam is a requirement for a CCA (Citrix® Certified Administrator) for Presentation Server 4.0 certification, a requirement for a CCEA (Citrix® Certified Enterprise Administrator) for Access Suite 4.0 certification and a requirement for a CCIA (Citrix® Certified Integration Architect) for Access Suite 4.0 certification.
1Y0-256 Documents and Exam Prep
To be sure you are fully prepared for the 1Y0-256 Presentation Server 4.0 Administration exam, study all of the material below.
1Y0-256 Citrix® MetaFrame® Presentation Server 4.0 Administration Exam Enablement Guide
MetaFrame® Presentation Server 4.0 Administrator’s Guide
Load Manager Administrator’s Guide
Installation Manager Administrator’s Guide
Web Interface Administrator’s Guide
Client for 32-Bit Windows Administrator’s Guide
Secure Gateway 3.0 Administrator’s Guide
Unattended Installation Packaging Procedure in Installation Manager
1Y0-256 Free Practice Exam
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1.What are two technical considerations for deciding to create more than one farm in a Presentation Server
environment? (Choose two.)
A. The brand of network hardware
B. The types of published applications
C. The geographic location of the servers
D. The type of network connection between the servers
Answer: CD
2. During the setup of Presentation Server, which two options must an administrator select if company
policy dictates that shadowing can only be performed with user permission? (Choose two.)
A. Prohibit remote control
B. Log all shadow requests
C. Force a shadow acceptance popup
D. Allow shadowing of user sessions on this server
E. Prohibit shadowing of user sessions on this server
Answer: CD
3. Scenario: An administrator renamed a server from PSServ01 to W2K3PSServ01. The old name is still
included in the server list and referred to in the data collector ranking, published application references and
license assignments.
What should the administrator do to remove the old server name from the farm data?
A. Uninstall Presentation Server from the system
B. Force the removal of Presentation Server from the system
C. Select Remove server from farm in the Presentation Server Console
D. Update the references to the old name in the appropriate management consoles
Answer: C
4. Scenario: While planning a Presentation Server deployment on multiple servers, an organization wants
to ensure that there is no single point of failure. Which three database options eliminate the single point of
failure? (Choose three.)
A. Oracle
B. IBM DB2
C. Microsoft Access
D. Microsoft SQL Server
E. Microsoft SQL Desktop Engine (MSDE)
Answer: ABD
5. Through which three management tools or utilities can shadowing be enabled for users of Presentation
Server? (Choose three.)
A. Access Suite Console
B. Presentation Server Console
C. Presentation Server Installation
D. Citrix Connection Configuration Utility
E. Web Interface Administration Console
Answer: BCD
6. Scenario: You created a policy for the Human Resources group which restricts the users in that group
from accessing local drives. Human Resources has recently added five new recruiters to the team who will
travel to universities throughout the country to recruit candidates. While on these trips the recruiters will
need to save data to their laptops and upload information nightly to the database which is published and
load-balanced across all servers in the farm. You create a new policy for the recruiters called “HR
recruitment” and disable the rule which restricts the access to the client drives.
Which two filter types should be applied to the “HR recruitment” policy to exclude the recruiters from the
client drive mapping rule? (Choose two.)
A. Server
B. Location
C. Client names
D. Users and user groups
E. Connections made through controlled access
Answer: CD
7. Scenario: You created a policy for the Human Resources group called “HR standard” which restricts the
users in that group from accessing local drives. Human Resources has recently added five new recruiters
to the team who will travel to universities throughout the country to recruit candidates. While on these trips
the recruiters will need to save data on their laptops and upload information nightly to the database which is
published on a Presentation Server. You create a new policy for the recruiters called “HR recruitment” and
disable the rule which restricts the access to the client drives.
Which two steps are required to ensure that the recruiters are able to access their local drives? (Choose
two.)
A. Rank the “HR recruitment” policy higher than the “HR standard” policy.
B. Rank the “HR standard” policy higher than the “HR recruitment”" policy.
C. Filter the “HR standard” policy by users, specify the five recruiter accounts and allow access.
D. Filter the “HR recruitment” policy by users, specify the five recruiter accounts and allow access.
Answer: AD
8. Scenario: You created several policies and configured filters for them in the Presentation Server Console.
You now wish to verify the enforcement of these policies on specific user accounts in your enterprise.
How can you view the effective Citrix policies for these user accounts?
A. Filter the policies by user in the Policy Management Console.
B. From the client device execute the GPRESULT application.
C. In the Presentation Server Console, select Tools, Wizards, Effective Policy Wizard.
D. In the Presentation Server Console, execute the search function focused on the target user accounts
and click “View Resultant Policy”.
Answer: D
9. When applying a newly created policy to a farm, in which three ways can the policy be filtered? (Choose
three.)
A. By farm
B. By server
C. By location
D. By client IP address
E. By user or user group
Answer: BDE
10. Scenario: A production company has Presentation Server enabled for local and remote users. All users
belong to the “Production” user group. In addition, a remote user group is configured.
Several proprietary applications, which are critical to the organization’s business, require audio. Remote
users complain of degraded performance for these applications. The administrator limits the audio
bandwidth for the remote users through a policy called Remote Audio. An additional policy, Production
Audio, is configured for the entire Production group, which optimizes the audio for all employees in that
group.
To ensure that the “Remote Audio” policy is applied to remote user sessions only, which policy should be
ranked highest?
A. Default user
B. SpeedScreen
C. Remote Audio
D. Production Audio
Answer: C
11. Scenario: John, a Citrix administrator, needs to enable the synchronization of PDA devices for both local
and remote users. Users will connect from the LAN to Web Interface.
Which two options allow John to accomplish this? (Choose two.)
A. In the Microsoft Management Console, John can add the Device Manager snap-in.
B. In the Presentation Server Console, John can enable the automatic sharing of PDA devices in server
properties.
C. In the Presentation Server Console, John can create a policy under properties and enable the policy rule
“Turn on automatic virtual COM port mapping”.
D. In the Access Suite Console, John can create a MetaFrame Presentation Server site, select the Manage
Client Connection settings and enable the PDA settings.
Answer: CD
12. Scenario: Two weeks ago you imported a print server and assigned a printer to all users using a session
printers policy. Now a new printer has been added to the same print server.
If you want all users to have access to the newly added printer which two steps should you take? (Choose
two.)
A. Map the required driver.
B. Enable universal driver policy.
C. Configure the auto-creation rule for all clients.
D. Add the printer to the existing session printers policy.
E. Update the network print server in the Printer Management node.
Answer: DE
13. For which two scenarios would it be most appropriate to implement universal printing? (Choose two.)
A. At a company with a diverse printing architecture
B. At an organization with a small IT staff and management of print drivers is not a desired task
C. At a small advertising company which requires color printouts exclusively from Mac clients
D. In an organization in which most users print to locally attached printers using the same print drivers
Answer: AB
14. Which consideration does an administrator need to keep in mind when configuring printer drivers using
the auto-replication method instead of the manual replication method?
A. The auto-replication method always overwrites any existing drivers.
B. Auto-replication of printer drivers cannot be performed over a WAN.
C. All servers need to be manually refreshed after an auto-replication of printer drivers is performed.
D. Auto-replication increases server load and consumes network bandwidth, so it should be done during
off-peak hours.
Answer: D
15. Scenario: Your environment includes Terminal Services mandatory profiles. Users have complained
that the printing properties designated during each session are not retained.
Which two options within the printer properties retention policy will address this complaint? (Choose two.)
A. Enable session printers
B. Retained in user profile only
C. Saved on the client device only
D. Held in profile if not saved on client
Answer: CD
16. Scenario: A user in a company logs on to the farm and launches the published application, Microsoft
Excel. Sometimes the user must wait for a minute or longer for Presentation Server to create all of the
printers before the application can be used.
How can the adminstrator improve the user’s experience?
A. The administrator can give the user workspace control.
B. The administrator can configure the “Inherit client printer” settings option.
C. The administrator can switch from a synchronous to an asynchronous configuration for printer creation.
D. The administrator can use a policy to limit the bandwidth the user consumes in an ICA session to
improve user logon time.
Answer: C
17. Client network printers __________. (Fill in the blank with the correct option.)
A. always route through the client device
B. can have routing configured within printer management properties
C. can have routing configured by means of the print job routing policy
D. always route directly from the Presentation Server to the network printer
Answer: C
18. Scenario: You are an administrator of a farm at a software engineering firm where users are
experiencing delayed log-in times. Although network printers have been imported and assigned, users
typically use their default printer and only change printers when their default printer does not support a
needed feature such as duplexing or color printing. Users are technically competent and usually manage
access to both the default and network printers on their own within ICA sessions.
After enabling the auto-creation printing policy rule, which connection option should be selected to optimize
the users’ experience?
A. Auto-create all client printers
B. Do not auto-create client printers
C. Auto-create the client’s default printer only
D. Auto-create local (non-network) client printers only
Answer: C
19. Scenario: A farm at an architectural firm requires that users have access to a variety of networked
speciality printers, including large format 1200 dpi printers for architectural drawings that require special
drivers. For these printers, native drivers are installed. Remote users also have a wide variety of client
printers.
Which universal printing policy setting is recommended for this environment ?
A. Use universal driver only
B. Both universal and native drivers
C. Use only printer model specific drivers
D. Use universal driver only if requested driver is unavailable
Answer: D
20. In an environment in which universal printing is not being used, when is configuring printer driver
mapping recommended?
A. Whenever network printing is in use
B. Whenever local printers exist in the environment
C. When clients are allowed to print from an application running on a Presentation Server
D. When there are Windows 9X clients with drivers installed that are allowed to print from the server
Answer: D
Free Testking 1Y0-A13 Citrix Access Gateway 9.0 Exam Braindump
Free Testking 1Y0-A13 Citrix Access Gateway 9.0 Exam Braindump, Citrix 1Y0-A13 Exam Implementing Citrix Access Gateway 9.0, Enterprise Edition.
1. A system administrator has been asked to configure Access Gateway 9.0, Enterprise Edition so that
users are NOT presented with the choices page and can only connect clientlessly. The administrator has
decided to perform this configuration at the global level. What should be set under the Client Experience
tab?
A. Clientless Access to On
B. Plugin Type to Windows
C. Clientless Access URL Encoding to Clear
D. Windows Plugin Type to Access Gateway
Answer: A
2. An administrator wants users to be able to access resources running on file servers and application
servers in an environment. The administrator has deployed Access Gateway 9.0, Enterprise Edition. The
Citrix Access Gateway Plugin for Windows is used to establish connections to the corporate network. There
are no intranet applications configured in this environment and split tunneling is turned off. The default
authorization policy is set to “Deny.”
Users in this environment will be able to access applications on file and application servers as long as
_______. (Choose the correct phrase to complete the sentence.)
A. users are assigned specific intranet IP addresses
B. an authorization policy is configured to grant them access
C. internal resources are assigned specific intranet IP addresses
D. internal resources in this environment are configured as published applications
Answer: B
3. An Access Gateway virtual server is configured with the following three settings:
ICA Proxy is set to ON
Web Interface address is set to “http://10.102.32.201:80/Citrix/AccessPlatform”
Clientless Access is set to ON
Client Choices is enabled
Which client choice(s) will be available to a user logging in from a client device running a Windows
operating system?
A. Web Interface only
B. Clientless Access only
C. Web Interface and Clientless Access
D. Access Gateway Plugin for Windows, Web Interface and Clientless Access
Answer: C
4. A system administrator created a new virtual server, “admin.widget.com”, on an Access Gateway
appliance. Only system administrators will be connecting to this virtual server. These system administrators
require a full SSL VPN tunnel when connecting. Other users connect to another virtual server,
“users.widget.com”, which runs on the same Access Gateway appliance. Any user connecting through
“users.widget.com” currently connects clientlessly. Which action must the administrator take to give the
system administrators full VPN access?
A. Edit the virtual server corresponding to admin.widget.com and enable the Citrix Access Gateway Plugin
for ActiveX
B. Create a session policy, set Clientless Access to Off in the profile associated with the policy and apply
the policy to users.widget.com
C. Create a session policy, set Clientless Access to Off in the profile associated with the policy and apply
the policy to admin.widget.com
D. Create a session policy, select Citrix Access Gateway Plugin for Windows as the “Windows PluginType”
in the profile associated with the policy and apply the policy to admin.widget.com
Answer: D
5. The Citrix Access Gateway Plugin for Windows needs administrative privileges _______ and ________
on a Windows XP device. (Choose the two correct phrases to complete the sentence.)
A. for installation
B. for upgrading or downgrading of the system
C. for Endpoint Analysis checks that require administrative privileges
D. for those rare situations where it will be used as an antivirus application
Answer: AC
6. An administrator wants to provide access to published applications hosted on XenApp servers only,
without requiring the use of a Citrix Access Gateway Plugin for Windows.Which feature should the
administrator enable in order to meet the needs of this environment?
A. ICA proxy
B. Single sign-on
C. SmartAccess with ICA proxy
D. Session Reliability on Web Interface
Answer: A
7. The wireless network in an environment is NOT secure, so users connecting over it need to log on to
Access Gateway in order to access resources in the corporate intranet. The users in this environment are
running Windows XP on their client devices and management has instructed the IT team to ensure that
users are logged on automatically to Access Gateway using the Windows credentials they used to log on to
their client devices.Which Access Gateway Plugin type should the IT team implement in this environment?
A. Clientless Access
B. Citrix Access Gateway Plugin for Java
C. Citrix Access Gateway Plugin for ActiveX
D. Citrix Access Gateway Plugin for Windows
Answer: D
8. A network administrator created multiple personal folder files (*.pst) on a workstation while accessing
Outlook over a VPN session. The administrator would like for the *.pst files to be deleted upon logout from
the VPN session.The administrator should configure the client cleanup to clean up _______. (Choose the
correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. cookies
B. *.pst files
C. address bars
D. application data
Answer: D
9. An Access Gateway virtual server is configured with the following settings:
A group named QUARGRP
A session profile named QUARPROF, with Clientless Access mode set to ON
A session policy named QUARPOL, with the expression, “NS_TRUE” and the profile QUARPROF
The QUARPOL session policy is bound to the QUARGRP group
The global settings with Client Security is set to “CLIENT.APP.AV == SYMANTEC EXISTS” and the
quarantine group is set to QUARGRP
Which client will be provided to a user who logs on to the virtual server from a client device that is NOT
running Symantec Antivirus?
A. Web Interface
B. Clientless Access
C. Citrix Access Gateway Plugin for Java
D. Citrix Access Gateway Plugin for Windows
Answer: B
10. A network administrator is instructed to perform client-side cleanup before every session over the Citrix
Access Gateway Plugin for Windows through the Access Gateway appliance.What is true about client-side
cleanup?
A. Client-side cleanup clears the history of the browser.
B. Client-side cleanup cleans up data regularly during the session.
C. Client-side cleanup will delete all Internet Explorer temporary files.
D. Client-side cleanup will NOT clean up any data before the session starts.
Answer: D
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1. Click the Exhibit button.
Which air distribution method is displayed in this picture?
A. Flooded supply, fully ducted return
B. Flooded supply, locally ducted return
C. Locally ducted supply, flooded return
D. Locally ducted supply, flooded return
Answer: B
2. Click the Exhibit button.
Which air distribution method is displayed in this picture?
A. Fully ducted supply, flooded return
B. Flooded supply, fully ducted return
C. Flooded supply, locally ducted return
D. Locally ducted supply, flooded return
Answer: A
3. Click the Exhibit button.
Which air distribution method is displayed in the exhibit?
A. Flooded supply, flooded return
B. Flooded supply, fully ducted return
C. Flooded supply, locally ducted return
D. Locally ducted supply, flooded return
Answer: A
4. What is the highest cost UPS configuration?
A. System + system
B. Parallel redundant
C. Isolated redundant
D. Distributed redundant
Answer: A
5. What is the difference between an undervoltage and a sag?
A. A sag lasts less time than an undervoltage condition.
B. A sag has less of a voltage drop than an undervoltage condition.
C. A sag is due to downstream loads and undervoltage is due to the power source.
D. A sag occurs in low voltage distribution and undervoltage occurs in high voltage distribution.
Answer: A
6. What is required for the transfer of heat from one object to another?
A. A difference in airflow
B. A difference in volume
C. A difference in pressure
D. A difference in temperature
Answer: D
7. What does the CFD acronym stand for?
A. Certified Field Dichotomy
B. Circular Flow Determination
C. Computational Finite Deviation
D. Computational Fluid Dynamics
Answer: D
8. The rear of an IT equipment rack is fitted with a duct that is connected to a drop ceiling plenum; the
plenum is connected by a duct to the perimeter CRAC unit. The CRAC unit discharges air into a raised
floor. The IT equipment rack is located above a hole in the raised floor which allows conditioned air to
enter the rack.
This is an example of which type of air distribution system?
A. Flooded supply, fully ducted return
B. Locally ducted supply, flooded return
C. Flooded supply, locally ducted return
D. Fully ducted supply, fully ducted return
Answer: D
9. Cooling towers are a typical component of which heat rejection system?
A. Water cooled system
B. Glycol cooled system
C. Air cooled split system
D. Air cooled self-contained system
Answer: A
10. Which type of humidification system uses quartz lamps extended over an open pool of water to release
water vapor?
A. Infrared humidifier
B. Ultrasonic humidifier
C. Electromagnetic humidifier
D. Steam canister humidifier
Answer: A
11. What is an advantage of choosing a four-post open frame rack over a two-post open frame rack?
A. Lower cost
B. Smaller footprint
C. Easier assembly
D. Increased strength
Answer: D
12. How do enclosures improve rack system cooling?
A. By improving natural air flow
B. By improving fire suppression
C. By allowing hot and cold air to mix together
D. By preventing hot and cold air from mixing together
Answer: D
13. An infrared scan of cabling can detect what two problems? (Choose two.)
A. An overloaded circuit
B. A loose connection
C. Compatibility errors
D. Electrical interference
Answer: AB
14. What are three benefits of Inergen? (Choose three.)
A. It is non-conductive.
B. It has zero ozone depletion potential.
C. It has a low pressure delivery system.
D. It requires less storage tanks than Halon.
E. It is safe to discharge in an occupied area.
Answer: ABE
15. What is a component of the network-critical physical infrastructure (NCPI)?
A. Voice over IP
B. Fire protection
C. Office supplies
D. Desktop application software
Answer: B
16. What is an example of a standard building management system (BMS) protocol?
A. IPV6
B. TCP/IP
C. MODBUS
D. 10/100 BASE-T
Answer: C
17. What does the term “5-nines” availability mean?
A. 5 minutes of downtime per year
B. 9 minutes of downtime per year
C. 14 minutes of downtime per year
D. 45 minutes of downtime per year
Answer: A
18. What would be a comprehensive strategy for protecting the most critical racks of a data center?
A. Key access to the critical racks
B. Video camera pointed directly at critical racks
C. Iris scanner at the entrance to the data center
D. Nested security perimeters with racks at the innermost level
Answer: D
19. What are three advantages of biometric access control? (Choose three.)
A. Cannot be lost
B. Inexpensive to deploy
C. Difficult to fool the sensor
D. Cannot be shared with others
E. Always correctly identifies the user
Answer: ACD
20. Requiring frequent password changes can compromise security because _____.
A. Users tend to write down frequently changed passwords
B. It makes the password database an easier target for hackers
C. It makes it harder for legitimate users to access their own data
D. It burdens the IT help desk with requests for forgotten or expired passwords
Answer: A
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2. Which protocols are used to detect the failures that impact Label Switch Path (LSP) traffic?
A. RSVP-TE Hello and ITU-T Y1711
B. OSPF-TE keep-alive and ATM PNNI
C. RSVP-TE Hello and OSPF keep-alive
D. ITU-T Y1711 and OSPF-TE keep-alive
Answer: A
3. Assessing a LAN for its ability to carry VoIP is also known as “network health check”.
What is a network health check intended to predict?
A. whether the network can provide efficient signaling and call establishment
B. whether the network has sufficient security in the communication link
C. the reliability of VoIP services running the network
D. identification of VoIP quality-killing impairments
Answer: D
4. Which method is used for call transfers and redirection to a conference bridge when the Session Initiation
Protocol (SIP) is used?
A. PRACK
B. UPDATE
C. REFER
D. NOTIFY
Answer: C
5. Which statement is true concerning the SIP protocol?
A. SIP is based on H.323.
B. SIP is an extension of HTTP/1.1.
C. SIP is a component of HTTP/1.1.
D. SIP is based on a request/response transaction model.
Answer: D
