Free Testking 1z0-108 10g DBA WebLogic Server Exam Braindump
Free Testking 1z0-108 10g DBA WebLogic Server Exam Braindump, 1Z0-108 Exam Oracle WebLogic Server 10g System Administration.
Oracle WebLogic System Administration : 1Z0-108 Exam
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1. Scenario : A single tier WebLogic cluster is configured with six Managed Servers. An Enterprise
application is deployed to the cluster with a web application and EJBs packaged in the same EAR file.
An EAR file is being deployed to the cluster using two-phase deployment. Which of the following is true if
one of the Managed Servers is NOT started in the cluster?
A. First and second phase deployment will be completed on all remaining instances in the cluster.
B. First phase deployment will not be completed on the remaining instances in the cluster.
C. First phase deployment will be completed but the second phase will not be completed on the remaining
instances in the cluster.
D. First and second phase deployment will not be completed if enforceClusterConstraints is set to true for
the Deployer.
E. Both a and d
Answer: E
2. Which of the following statements are true for built-in roles in the WebLogic Server Administration
console? Choose two.
A. Users who belong to the Operator role can deploy the applications.
B. Users who belong to the Monitor role can view the server configuration, except for the encrypted
attributes.
C. Users who belong to the Admin role cannot deploy applications.
D. Only users who belong to the Admin role can start, stop, and resume the server.
E. Users who belong to the Admin role can modify the entire server configuration.
Answer: BE
3. Scenario : Consider an upgrade requirement from pre-WebLogic Server 10.x to the WebLogic Server
10.x. Since the administration scripts in the prior version used WebLogic Ant tasks for creation and
deployment, the team decides to use the Ant build.xml approach and extend this to the current version of
the server.
Which of the following about the Ant task wlserver is INCORRECT?
A. wlserver can be used to start, reboot or shut down server instances.
B. wlserver can be used to connect to existing server instances.
C. wlserver can be used to create a multiple server domain configuration.
D. wlserver can be used to create a single server domain and to connect to the server.
Answer: C
4. Click on the Exhibit button.
Scenario : You have made the decision to migrate all your operations onto WebLogic Server. An
application has been chosen from each department for the initial phase of migration ?one from each of
Sales, Marketing, Accounts, and Customer Service. The applications will be deployed as individual EAR
files to a cluster of WebLogic Server 10.x instances, each with a pool of connections to an Oracle 10g
database that provides corporate and departmental data services. The database team hopes to upgrade
the database to use Oracle RAC (Real Application Clusters) shortly, which will require you to configure
multiple sets of connections. Connectivity to the existing Service Engineer Dispatch system is via a JMS
message bridge. When a service engineer calls in with a report, a message is sent via JMS to the
Customer Service application deployed in WebLogic Server. The customer record in the Customer
Service database must be updated with details from the message. It is important that the message is not
lost because the call management system is not able to resend messages. To address this, the Customer
Service application is accessing a persistent JMS Queue using an XA compatible connection factory.
The database security team insists that any use of the corporate Oracle database can be traced to the
individual user that made the request. How can this be achieved when using WebLogic JDBC Data
Sources?
A. Set the Enable Credential Mapping property for the Data Source.
B. Set Initial Capacity to zero, so each user creates a new connection.
C. Set the value of user to {WLS_USER} in the Properties field.
D. This can only be done using application code.
E. This cannot be done because Data Sources connect using a single username.
Answer: A
5. In a multi-server WebLogic domain, monitoring the JVM statistics showed frequent full garbage
collections (gc) on one of the server instances. Which one of the following would greatly reduce the
frequency of full gcs?
A. Increasing the young object space in the heap
B. Turning the -verbosegc flag on
C. Adding more servers to the domain
D. Running more servers per machine
Answer: A
6. What are the four basic components of a JMS system-resource module in the config.xml in WebLogic
10.x?
A. Name, target, subdeployment, descriptor-file-name
B. Domain, jms-server, connection factory, destination
C. Config.xml, jms-module, subdeployment, descriptor-file-name
D. Name, jms-module, subdeployment, descriptor-file-name
Answer: A
7. The deployment configuration for an application or module is NOT stored in which type of the following
XML document:
A. J2EE deployment descriptors
B. weblogic-*.xml descriptors
C. WebLogic Server deployment plans
D. WebLogic config.xml
Answer: D
8. Scenario : Consider a b2b commerce application hosted on a WebLogic cluster with JMS messages
being received, processed, and forwarded to external servers. The server log indicates a potential stuck
thread problem where threads are continually getting stuck and JMX monitoring indicates a continuous
backlog of pending messages that could be due to any of the in-flight messages, delayed messages, or
messages being inhibited from delivery.
The recommended approach for setting the number of execute threads would be:
A. Set the default thread pool max value to match load expectations
B. Use an iterative approach to set the max thread count value
C. Set this value the same as the max connections value set on database connections
D. Leave this setting to be handled by the Work Manager by configuring MaxThreadsConstraint
Answer: D
9. An application-wide deployment plan was used to deploy an application. Based on post-performance
diagnosis, the HTTP post size needs to be reduced. Following would be a valid approach:
A. Configure the http maximum post size value in the existing deployment plan for redeploying using the
weblogic.Deployer utility.
B. Update the http maximum post size for the application using weblogic.Deployer.
C. Use weblogic.PlanGenerator to update http maximum post size configuration and redeploy the
application.
D. Use weblogic.Admin to set auto-tune-http-setting to be true and redeploy the application.
Answer: A
10. Scenario : The Stock Control Application you are going to deploy to a cluster of WebLogic Managed
Servers requires a JMS destination to asynchronously deliver the messages to the back-end Warehousing
Application. To distribute the messages across the cluster, you decided to configure the distributed
destination. Also the Warehousing Application is a legacy application written to implement a proprietary MQ
API connecting an MQ-Series server. The Stock Control Application is implemented as a web application on
a WebLogic cluster delivering the message to the distributed destination. The cluster has three Managed
Servers hosted on two high powered machines and one low range/powered machine.
To distribute the physical destinations unevenly across the clustered WebLogic Managed Servers so that
the high-powered machines can receive more messages than the low-powered machines, configure the
distributed destination with:
A. “Allocate Members Uniformly” set to false and manually select more physical destinations from the
high-powered machines
B. “Uneven Distribution” set to true and select all the physical destinations
C. “Uniform Distribute Destination” set to true and select all the physical destinations from the high-powered
and low- powered machines
D. “Load Balancing Policy” set to Random and select only the destination from the high-powered machine
Answer: A
11. JMS interop modules are different from JMS system resource modules because (Choose two)
A. JMS interop modules cannot use “Unit-of-Order”.
B. JMS interop modules can be targeted to multiple WebLogic Servers at the same time in a domain.
C. JMS interop module configuration is always stored as interop-jms.xml.
D. JMS interop module cannot use “Quota.”
Answer: BC
12. Which of the following is true about JMS Quota resources in WebLogic Server 10.x?
A. Quota settings can be shared across multiple JMS destinations so that they can compete.
B. Quota settings are defined on the JMS connection factory level.
C. Quota settings can be used to limit the number of JMS Connections to a JMS Server.
D. Quota settings can be shared across multiple WebLogic domains.
Answer: A
13. The feature to group messages into a single unit that is processed sequentially in the order that the
messages were created is called
A. Unit-or-Sort
B. Message Sorting
C. Destination Keys
D. Unit-of-Order
Answer: D
14.When a message is being processed by a consumer, the other unprocessed messages which belong to
the same Unit-of-Order will be:
A. Expired
B. Blocked
C. Delivered to the consumers
D. Rolled back
Answer: B
15. Click on the Exhibit button.
Scenario : A multi-cluster architecture, with two geographically separated clusters (WAN-1 and WAN-2), is
being created. It will provide cross-cluster WAN HTTP session failover. The WAN-1 cluster is located in
London and the WAN-2 cluster is located in New York and is connected via a slow interconnect. The client
request passes through a Global load balancer which load balances the request to local load balancers
which eventually pass the load to WebLogic Server instances in the cluster. Four WebLogic Server
instances will be running on each cluster distributed on two physical machines, two WebLogic instances per
physical machine. A database is configured on each cluster for HTTP Session state failover between the
clusters.
What would be the characteristics of the above WAN Cluster for optimal performance and scalability?
A. High network latency, asynchronous persistent replication between WAN-1 and WAN-2, synchronous
intra-cluster replication and cross-cluster replication via in-memory, JDBC or file persistence.
B. Fast network, synchronous persistent replication between WAN-1 and WAN-2, asynchronous replication
intra-cluster and cross-cluster replication via file persistence.
C. High network latency, asynchronous persistent replication between WAN-1 and WAN-2, synchronous
intra-cluster replication and cross-cluster replication via JDBC
D. Low network latency, asynchronous persistent replication between WAN-1 and WAN-2, no intra-cluster
replication and cross-cluster replication via JDBC
E. Fast network, synchronous persistent replication between WAN-1 and WAN-2, asynchronous
intra-cluster replication and cross-cluster replication via cookie persistence.
Answer: C
17. Click on the Exhibit button.
Scenario : A multi-cluster architecture, with two geographically separated clusters (WAN-1 and WAN-2), is
being created. It will provide cross-cluster WAN HTTP session failover. The WAN-1 cluster is located in
London and the WAN-2 cluster is located in New York and is connected via a slow interconnect. The client
request passes through a Global load balancer which load balances the request to local load balancers
which eventually pass the load to WebLogic Server instances in the cluster. Four WebLogic Server
instances will be running on each cluster distributed on two physical machines, two WebLogic instances per
physical machine. A database is configured on each cluster for HTTP Session state failover between the
clusters.
If the admin server for New York cluster crashes, what will be the effect on inter-cluster communication
between the two sites?
A. There’s no effect on the inter-cluster communication between the two sites
B. JDBC session flushing between two sites will be affected and will only be restarted on the Admin server
reboot.
C. Intra-cluster multicasting will be affected and inter-cluster communication will slow down between the
sites.
D. The Managed Servers will lose session stickiness and the server Health state will be changed to
suspend.
E. Both c and d
Answer: A
18. Click on the Exhibit button.
Scenario : A multi-network cluster, say WAN-1 and WAN-2, is being created that will provide WAN HTTP
session failover. The WAN-1 cluster is located in London and the WAN-2 cluster is located in New York and
is connected via a slow interconnect. The client request passes through a Global load balancer which load
balances the request to local load balancers which eventually pass the load to WebLogic Server instances
in the cluster. Four WebLogic Server instances will be running on each cluster distributed on two physical
machines, two WebLogic instances per physical machine. A database is configured on each cluster for
HTTP Session state failover between the clusters.
How can you configure in-memory session replication on the London cluster?
A. The web application deployment descriptor, weblogic.xml needs to have the persistent-store-type set to
memory.
B. The web application deployment descriptor, weblogic.xml needs to have the persistent-store-type set to
replicated.
C. The web application deployment descriptor, weblogic.xml needs to have the persistent-store-type set to
cookie.
D. The web application deployment descriptor, web.xml needs to have the persistent-store-type set to
memory.
E. The web application deployment descriptor, web.xml needs to have the persistent-store-type set to
replicated.
Answer: B
19. Scenario : A single tier WebLogic cluster is configured with six Managed Servers. An Enterprise
application is deployed to the cluster with a web application and EJBs packaged in the same EAR file.
A JSP in the web application makes an initial Context lookup on the stateless EJB and makes multiple
method calls to the EJB. Which of the following is true?
A. Each method call is invoked on an EJB on the same server as the web application as long as the server
is not overloaded.
B. Each method call is invoked on the same EJB in the same server as the web application as long as the
server is not overloaded.
C. Each method call round robins between the servers.
D. The behavior depends on the load algorithm on the replica-aware stub.
E. Every third call goes to a random server.
Answer: A
20. Requirement demands that an incoming request from a portfolio manager has to have a higher priority
compared to other users of the application. As an administrator, which one of the following approaches
would you adopt?
A. Use Work Manager with the execute thread model to set up rules to associate a priority to the user.
B. Use Work Manager fair-share-request-class to associate a priority to the user.
C. Use Work Manager response-time-request-class to associate a priority to the user.
D. Use Work Manager context-request-class to associate a priority to the user.
Answer: D
Free Testking 1Z1-054 11g Performance Tuning Exam Braindump
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The Oracle Database 11g Performance Tuning Certified Expert certification endorses those database administrators, support engineers, and technical consultants who have demonstrated their knowledge and skills using Oracle Database 11g automatic tuning features, including SQL Tuning Advisor, SQL Access Advisor, Automatic Workload Repository and Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor.
Earning this new Oracle Certification requires that you pass exam 1Z1-054 – Oracle Database 11g: Performance Tuning, which is now in beta at Prometric testing centers worldwide at the special beta price of only $50 USD. Although training is required (Oracle Database 11g Performance Tuning – Course ID D50317GC10), this requirement is waived for all certified Oracle 11g DBA OCPs!
Basic Tuning Tools
[ ] Diagnose performance issues using top wait events and the time model
[ ] Use dynamic performance views to view statistics and wait events
[ ] Use Enterprise Manager Monitoring
[ ] Identify the key tuning components of the alert logs
Using Automatic Workload Repository
[ ] Create and manage AWR snapshots
[ ] Generate and read AWR reports, analyze Compare Periods reports
Donwload Free PassGuide Braindumps-The Most Realistic Practice Questions and Answers,Help You Pass any Exams
Defining Problems
[ ] Identify performance issues & set tuning priorities
[ ] Interpret tuning diagnostics
[ ] Tune for life cycle phase
Using Metrics and Alerts
[ ] Interprete metric views and alerts
Baseline
[ ] Create and manage AWR baselines
[ ] Create AWR baselines for future time periods
[ ] Monitor performance and enable adaptive thresholds
Using AWR-Based Tools
[ ] Tune automatic maintenance tasks
[ ] Analyze ADDM reports
[ ] Analyze Active Session History (ASH) reports
Monitoring an Application
[ ] Configure and manage services
[ ] Use services with client applications, Database Resource Manager and Scheduler
[ ] Configure services aggregation, tracing, and set performance-metric thresholds
Identifying Problem SQL Statements
[ ] Describe SQL statement processing
[ ] View the SQL statement statistics to identify the SQL statements that perform poorly
[ ] Describe and use methods for Viewing Execution Plans
Influencing the Optimizer
[ ] Describe the optimizer’s behavior
[ ] Adjust parameters to influence the optimizer
[ ] Influence the optimizer (access methods, join techniques and adjust data structures)
SQL Performance Management
[ ] Manage optimizer statistics
[ ] Configure automatic SQL tuning and SQL profiling
[ ] Set up and use SQL plan baseline
Using SQL Performance Analyzer
[ ] Describe SQL Performance Analyzer process and benefits
[ ] Use SQL Performance Analyzer
Using Database Replay
[ ] Identify when and how to use Database Replay
[ ] Use Enterprise Manager to record and replay workloads
Tuning the Shared Pool
[ ] Describe Latches and Mutexes
[ ] Diagnose and change cursor sharing
[ ] Diagnose and resolve shared pool fragmentation
[ ] Manage the results cache and tune the large pool
[ ] Tune the data dictionary cache
Tuning the Buffer Cache
[ ] Describe the buffer cache architecture
[ ] Explain the symptoms that indicate a buffer cache problem
[ ] Tune the buffer cache for performance issues
Tuning PGA and Temporary Space
[ ] Diagnose PGA memory issues and size the PGA
[ ] Diagnose temporary space issues
[ ] Specify temporary tablespace parameters for efficient operation
Automatic Memory Management
[ ] Implement Automatic Shared Memory Management (ASMM)
[ ] Implement Automatic Memory Management (AMM)
Tuning Segment Space Usage
[ ] Tune segment space management
[ ] Use Automatic Segment Space Management
[ ] Diagnose row migration and chaining
[ ] Use segment shrinking and table compression
Tuning I/O
[ ] Diagnose database I/O issues
[ ] Describe the Stripe and Mirror Everything (SAME) concept
[ ] Set filesystemio_options and Choose appropriate I/O solutions
[ ] Tune Automatic Storage Management (ASM)
Appendix B Using Statspack
[ ] Using Statspack
1. After running SQL Performance Analyzer (SPA), you observe a few regressed SQL statements in the
SPA output. Identify the two actions that you would suggest for these regressed SQL statements. (Choose
two.)
A. Running SQL Access Advisor
B. Adding them to SQL Plan Baseline
C. Submitting them to SQL Tuning Advisor
D. Running Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM)
Answer: BC
2. View the Exhibit exhibit1 to examine the series of SQL commands and parameter settings.
View the Exhibit exhibit2 to examine the plans available in the SQL plan baseline.
The first plan (in red) is created when OPTIMIZER_MODE is set to ALL_ROWS and the second plan (in
blue) is created when OPTIMIZER_MODE is set to FIRST_ROWS.
Which SQL plan baseline would be used if the SQL query in exhibit1 is executed again when the value of
OPTIMIZER_MODE is set to FIRST_ROWS?
A. the second plan, because it is a fixed plan
B. the first plan, because it is an accepted plan
C. the second plan, because it is the latest generated plan in FIRST_ROW mode
D. A new plan, because the second plan in FIRST_ROW mode is not an accepted plan
Answer: B
3. You work as a DBA for a company and you have the responsibility of managing one of its online
transaction processing (OLTP) systems. The database encountered performance-related problems and you
generated an Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) report to investigate it further.
View the Exhibits and examine the AWR report.
What could be the problem in this database?
A. Java pool is not configured.
B. The CPU in the system is slow.
C. The shared pool size is inadequate.
D. The database buffer cache is inadequate.
E. The OPEN_CURSORS parameter is set to a small value.
Answer: C
4. You are working on an online transaction processing (OLTP) system. You detected free buffer waits
events for your database instance running in a machine that has multiple CPUs. You increased the
database buffer cache size as the first step. After a few hours of work on the database, further investigation
shows that the same event is being recorded.
What would be your next step to avoid this event in future?
A. Decrease the value of the DBWR_IO_SLAVES parameter.
B. Set the USE_INDIRECT_DATA_BUFFERS parameter to TRUE.
C. Increase the value of the DB_WRITER_PROCESSES parameter.
D. Increase the value of the DB_FILE_MULTIBLOCK_READ_COUNT parameter.
Answer: C
5. You are working on a development database that was upgraded to Oracle Database 11g from Oracle
Database 9i. An ADDM finding in this database says that the shared pool is inadequately sized, as shown in
the Exhibit.
You diagnosed that this is due to different kinds of workloads and this occurs only during peak hours. You
tried to resize this by shrinking the database buffer cache but that caused inadequate buffer cache
problems. The following are the related parameter settings:
SQL> show parameter sga
name TYPE VALUE
—————————— ————— —————–
lock_sga boolean FALSE
pre_page_sga boolean FALSE
sga_max_size big integer 300M
sga_target big integer 0
SQL> show parameter target
name TYPE VALUE
—————————— ————— —————–
…..
fast_start_mttr_target integer 0
memory_max_target big integer 0
memory_target big integer 0
pga_aggregate_target big integer 100M
sga_target big integer 0
You want to balance the memory between the System Global Area (SGA) components within SGA without
affecting the size of the Program Global Area (PGA).
Which action would solve this problem?
A. Set the SGA_TARGET parameter to 300M.
B. Set the SGA_MAX_SIZE parameter to 400M.
C. Set the MEMORY_TARGET parameter to 100M.
D. Set the MEMORY_MAX_TARGET parameter to 300M.
Answer: A
6. You observed that some of the queries are performing poorly on the SALES_RECORDS table in your
database.
On further investigation, you find that at the end of each day the contents of the SALES_RECORDS table
are transferred to the SALES table and deleted from the SALES_RECORDS table. The deleted operations
cause the table to be sparsely populated.
You decided to use the ALTER TABLE…SHRINK SPACE COMPACT command to shrink the table.
Why would you choose this method? (Choose all that apply.)
A. because it can be used during peak hours
B. because it avoids unnecessary cursor invalidation
C. because it adjusts the high-water mark (HWM) immediately
D. because you have long-running queries that might span the shrink operation
E. because it does not allow any data manipulation language (DML) operations, thereby making the shrink
operation faster
Answer: ABD
7. View the Exhibit and examine a portion of the output obtained from the following query:
SQL> SELECT * FROM v$sys_time_model;
Select three correct interpretations of the time model statistics. (Choose three.)
A. DB time includes the wait time of all the nonidle and idle user sessions.
B. SQL execute elapsed time includes the time spent in performing fetches of query results.
C. DB CPU includes the CPU time spent on database user-level calls and background CPU time.
D. SQL execute elapsed time includes components of the hard parse elapsed time like bind elapsed time.
E. DB time includes the connection management call elapsed time excluding the background process time.
Answer: BDE
8. A batch workload that historically completed in the maintenance window between 10:00 PM and midnight
is currently showing poor performance and completing at 2 AM.
To help in the diagnosis of the performance degradation, the senior DBA in your organization asks you to
execute the awrddrpt.sql script to produce a Compare Periods report.
Which two statements are true about the report produced by this script? (Choose two.)
A. It is refreshed automatically based on the moving window baseline.
B. It compares details between any two selected time periods of the same duration.
C. It normalizes the statistics by the amount of time spent on the database for each time period.
D. It compares details between two consecutive time periods of the same or different durations and is
refreshed every 60 minutes.
Answer: BC
9. You plan to use adaptive thresholds as part of the performance tuning activity. You decide to increase the
window size of the default moving window baseline for all metric observations and comparisons in your
database. The following error occurs when you try to increase the window size through Enterprise
Manager:
Failed to commit: ORA-13541: system moving window baseline size (1296000) greater than retention
(1036800) ORA-06512: at “SYS.DBMS_WORKLOAD_REPOSITORY”, line 601 ORA-06512: at line 2
Which action would allow you to perform the preceding task successfully?
A. increasing the flashback retention period
B. increasing the retention period for SQL Management Base
C. increasing the undo retention period for the database instance
D. increasing the Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) retention period
Answer: D
10. Identify two correct statements about the Active Session History (ASH) data. (Choose two.)
A. A part of SGAmemory is used to store ASH data as rolling buffer.
B. The ASH data can be analyzed between any two small time intervals.
C. All ASH data in memory are flushed to disk by MMON in every 3 seconds.
D. All ASH data in memory are flushed to disk by MMNL process whenever the buffer is full.
Answer: AB
11. A user in a session executed the following SQL statement to set the optimizer mode:
ALTER SESSION SET OPTIMIZER_MODE = ALL_ROWS
What impact would it have on the goal of the optimizer for that session? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Statement level OPTIMIZER_MODE hints take precedence over the session-level setting.
B. The OPTIMIZER_MODE parameter set at instance level takes precedence over the session-level value.
C. The optimizer uses a cost-based approach, regardless of the presence of statistics; it optimizes with a
goal of best response time.
D. The optimizer uses a cost-based approach for all SQL statements in the session, regardless of the
presence of statistics; it optimizes with a goal of best throughput.
Answer: AD
12. You are working on an online transaction processing (OLTP) system. By day most of the application
users perform queries accessing the most recently added or modified rows. The applications have most of
the queries based on multiple tables. But at night, some batch processing is also done.
Which two actions would you recommend to choose a goal for the optimizer based on the needs of your
application? (Choose two.)
A. setting the OPTIMIZER_MODE parameter to ALL_ROWS at the instance level
B. setting the OPTIMIZER_MODE parameter to FIRST_ROWS_n at the instance level
C. asking the developer to add a hint /*ALL_ROWS*/ in the long-running batch processing queries
D. asking the developer to add a hint /*FIRST_ROWS_n*/ in the long-running batch processing queries
Answer: BC
13. Which three factors influence the optimizer’s behavior while choosing an optimization approach and
goal for a SQL statement? (Choose three.)
A. parsing of a SQL statement
B. operating system (OS) statistics
C. object statistics in the data dictionary
D. the OPTIMIZER_MODE initialization parameter
E. optimizer SQL hints for changing the query optimizer goal
Answer: CDE
14. Examine the initialization parameter values for the instance given below:
name TYPE VALUE
———————————— ———– ——————
optimizer_capture_sql_plan_baselines boolean FALSE
optimizer_dynamic_sampling integer 2
optimizer_features_enable string 11.1.0.6
optimizer_index_caching integer 0
optimizer_index_cost_adj integer 100
optimizer_mode string ALL_ROWS
db_file_multiblock_read_count integer 64
The index created on the column used in the WHERE clause of the query. You notice that the query is not
using the index. Instead of an index scan, a full table scan is used.
View the Exhibit and examine the autotrace output for a query.
What could be the reason for it? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The OPTIMIZER_INDEX_COST_ADJ initialization parameter has a low value.
B. The DB_FILE_MULTIBLOCK_READ_COUNT initialization parameter has a low value.
C. The statistics for the table and all the indexes associated with the table are not current.
D. The table has less than DB_FILE_MULTIBLOCK_READ_COUNT blocks under the high-water mark.
Answer: CD
15. Examine the initialization parameter values for the instance given below:
name TYPE VALUE
———————————— ———– ——————
optimizer_capture_sql_plan_baselines boolean FALSE
optimizer_dynamic_sampling integer 2
optimizer_features_enable string 11.1.0.6
optimizer_index_caching integer 0
optimizer_index_cost_adj integer 100
optimizer_mode string ALL_ROWS
db_file_multiblock_read_count integer 64
You notice that the one of the queries is using a full table scan (view Exhibit1) instead of index unique
scan (view Exhibit2). The index is present on the column that is accessed in the WHERE clause of the
query. The cost for a full table scan is more than that for an index unique scan.
Why would the optimizer choose full table scan over index unique scan? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The OPTIMIZER_INDEX_COST_ADJ initialization parameter is set to a low value.
B. The OPTIMIZER_INDEX_COST_ADJ initialization parameter is set to a high value.
C. The DB_FILE_MULTIBLOCK_READ_COUNT initialization parameter is set to a low value.
D. The statistics for the table and all the indexes associated with the table are not current.
Answer: BD
16. The columns CUST_CITY, CUST_STATE_PROVINCE, and COUNTRY_ID are frequently used
together in the WHERE clause of the queries. The CUSTOMERS table is a big table with 20 GB of data.
You notice that the selectivity for these three columns varies from the selectivity that the optimizer
calculates.
What would you recommend to influence the selectivity calculated by the optimizer?
A. creating function-based indexes by concatenating all the columns
B. updating histogram statistics for these columns by using the DBMS_STATS.GATHER_TABLE_STATS
procedure
C. using the DBMS_STATS.CREATE_EXTENDED_STATS function to create a virtual column and create
index on the virtual column
D. using the DBMS_STATS.CREATE_EXTENDED_STATS function to create a virtual column and the
DBMS_STATS.GATHER_TABLE_STATS procedure to collect statistics on the virtual column
Answer: D
17. View Exhibit1 to examine the description of the CUSTOMERS table.
You observed that optimizer selectivity is not accurate when the CUST_STATE_PROVINCE and
COUNTRY_ID columns are used together in the WHERE clause of a query.
View Exhibit2 to examine the query execution plan and the commands executed to gather the statistics.
The optimizer predicts that 20 rows will be processed rather than the 3,341 rows, which is the actual
number of rows returned from the table.
What can you do to make the optimizer detect the actual number of rows?
A. Set the STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter to ALL.
B. Set the OPTIMIZER_USE_PENDING_STATISTICS parameter to FALSE.
C. Create extended statistics for the CUST_STATE_PROVINCE and COUNTRY_ID columns.
D. Increase the STALE_PERCENT value for the CUSTOMERS table by using the
DBMS_STATS.SET_TABLE_PREFS procedure.
Answer: C
18. View Exhibit1 to examine the description of the CUSTOMERS table.
The CUSTOMERS table has been updated heavily today. In a frequently used SQL statement, you notice
that estimated rows and the actual number of rows fetched differ greatly. The COUNTRY_ID column has an
index.
View Exhibit2 and examine the query execution plan.
What would you recommend to improve the optimizer’s estimation?
A. setting the STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter to ALL
B. setting the OPTIMIZER_USE_PENDING_STATISTICS parameter to FALSE
C. creating extended statistics for the CUST_LAST_NAME, CUST_ID, and CUST_TOTAL columns
D. updating the statistics for the CUSTOMERS table by using the DBMS_STATS.GATHER_TABLE_STATS
procedure
Answer: D
19. You are working on a decision support system (DSS). The index is available on the COUNTRY_ID
column of the CUSTOMERS table.
View the Exhibit and examine the parameter settings and the query execution plan.
Why is the query using a full table scan instead of an index scan?
A. because the histogram statistics for the COUNTRY_ID column are not updated
B. because the index statistics for the index on the COUNTRY_ID column are not current
C. because the DB_FILE_MULTIBLOCK_READ_COUNT initialization parameter is set to a higher value
D. because the optimizer predicts that most of the blocks in the table are accessed. Therefore, it uses a full
table scan, even though indexes are available.
Answer: D
20. View Exhibit1 and examine the indexes on the CUSTOMERS table.
The statistics for the CUSTOMERS table have been updated recently by using the following command:
SQL> EXEC DBMS_STATS.GATHER_TABLE_STATS(’SH’,'CUSTOMERS’,method_opt=>’FOR ALL
INDEXED COLUMNS SIZE AUTO’);
View Exhibit2 to examine a query plan. Even though the index is present on the COUNTRY_ID and
CUST_GENDER columns, the query uses a full table scan. What could be the reason?
A. because the histogram statistics for the COUNTRY_ID column are not updated
B. because the DB_FILE_MULTIBLOCK_READ_COUNT initialization parameter is set to a high value
C. because the optimizer calculates the cost of accessing blocks by using a full table scan to be less as
compared to index scans, even though indexes are available
D. because indexes on CUST_GENDER and COUNTRY_ID columns are of different types, the index on
the CUST_GENDER column is bitmap index, and on COUNTRY_ID columns is btree index.
Answer: C
Free Testking Oracle 1Z0-146 11g Advanced PL/SQL Exam Braindump
Free Testking Oracle 1Z0-146 11g Advanced PL/SQL Exam Braindump,
Oracle Database 11g: New Features for Administrators
AND
Oracle Database 10g: New Features for Administrators
OR
Oracle Database 10g: New Features for Administrators Ed 2.1 LWC
OR
Oracle Database 11g: New Features for Oracle 9i DBAs
Training Opportunities for Oracle Partner Network Members
Associated Certifications: Oracle Database 11g Administrator Certified Professional
OPN Certified Specialist
Exam Price: US$125
Duration: 120 minutes
Number of Questions: 84
Passing Score: 61%
1.Which two types of metadata can be retrieved by using the various procedures in the DBMS_METADATA
PL/SQL package? (Choose two.)
A. report of invalidated objects in a schema
B. report of statistics of an object in the database
C. DDL for all object grants on a table in the database
D. data definition language (DDL) for all objects in a schema
Answer: CD
2. The database instance was recently started up. Examine the following parameter settings for the
database instance:
NAME TYPE VALUE
———————————— ———– —————————-
………
result_cache_max_result integer 5
result_cache_max_size big integer 0
result_cache_mode string MANUAL
result_cache_remote_expiration integer 0
………
You reset the value for the result_cache_max_size parameter by issuing the following command:
SQL> ALTER SYSTEM SET result_cache_max_size = 1056k SCOPE = BOTH;
System altered.
Which statement is true in this scenario?
A. 1056 KB is allocated for the result cache and the result cache is enabled.
B. 1056 KB is allocated for the result cache, but the result cache is disabled.
C. The results for only the queries that have the RESULT_CACHE hint are cached.
D. The results for all the queries except those having the NO_RESULT_CACHE hint are cached.
Answer: B
3. In a user session, tracing is enabled as follows:
SQL> EXECUTE DBMS_TRACE.SET_PLSQL_TRACE(DBMS_TRACE.TRACE_ENABLED_LINES);
PL/SQL procedure successfully completed.
You executed the procedure as follows:
SQL> EXECUTE PROC10
PL/SQL procedure successfully completed.
When you examine the PLSQL_TRACE_EVENTS table, you find that no trace information was written into
it.
View the Exhibit.
What is the reason for this?
A. The PROC10 procedure is created with the invoker’s right.
B. The PROC10 procedure is not compiled with the DEBUG option.
C. Tracing is not enabled with the TRACE_ENABLED_CALLS option.
D. The TRACE_ENABLED parameter is set to FALSE for the session.
Answer: B
4. Which two statements are true about SecureFile LOB options? (Choose two.)
A. The COMPRESSION HIGH option can be enabled only for CLOBs.
B. The COMPRESSION HIGH option can be enabled for all internal LOBs.
C. The DECRYPT option can be used to remove encryption only if the LOB column is empty.
D. The DECRYPT option can be used to remove encryption from LOB columns that are empty or contain
data.
Answer: BD
5. View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the EMPLOYEES table.
Examine the following PL/SQL block:
DECLARE
TYPE EmpList
IS VARRAY(2) OF employees.employee_id%TYPE NOT NULL;
v_employees EmpList := EmpList();
BEGIN
DBMS_OUTPUT.PUT_LINE(v_employees.COUNT);
v_employees.EXTEND;
v_employees(1) := 30;
END;
/
Which statement is true about the outcome on executing the above PL/SQL block?
A. It executes successfully and displays the value 2.
B. It executes successfully and displays the value 0.
C. It generates an error because EXTEND cannot be used for varrays.
D. It generates an error because the declaration of the varray is not valid.
Answer: B
6. View the Exhibit and examine the procedure to create a trigger name based on the table name supplied
to the procedure.
Which three statements are appropriate for protecting the code in the procedure from SQL injection?
(Choose three.)
A. Explicitly validate the identifier length limit.
B. Add AUTHID DEFINER to the definition of the procedure.
C. Use PRAGMA RESTRICT_REFERENCES in the procedure.
D. Filter out control characters in user-supplied identifier names.
E. Use the object ID of the table from the data dictionary to build the trigger name.
Answer: ADE
7. Which statement describes the purpose of the plshprof command?
A. It produces HTML output from raw profiler output.
B. It produces HTML output from profiler tables in the database.
C. It populates profiler tables in the database from raw profiler output.
D. It produces raw profiler output on the most recently run applications.
Answer: A
8. Examine the structure of the DEPARTMENTS table.
Name Null? Type
—————————– ———— ———-
DEPARTMENT_ID NOT NULL NUMBER(4)
DEPARTMENT_NAME NOT NULL VARCHAR2(30)
LOCATION_ID NUMBER(4)
View the Exhibit and examine the code that you plan to use for creating a package to obtain the details of
an employee using a host variable on the client side.
In SQL*Plus, you plan to use the following commands:
SQL> VARIABLE x REFCURSOR
SQL> EXECUTE emp_data.get_emp(195,:x)
SQL> PRINT x
Which statement is true about the above scenario?
A. The package executes successfully and passes the required data to the host variable.
B. The package specification gives an error on compilation because cursor variable types cannot be
defined in the specification.
C. The package specification gives an error on compilation because the cursor variable parameter was
specified before you defined it.
D. The package executes successfully, but does not pass the required data to the host variable because the
cursor is closed before the PRINT statement runs.
Answer: D
9. Which two statements correctly describe the features of SecureFiles? (Choose two.)
A. Compression does not entail table or index compression and vice-versa.
B. Encryption stores the encryption keys for the LOB columns inside the database.
C. Encryption stores the encryption keys for the LOB columns outside the database.
D. Compression stores identical data occurring two or more times in the same LOB column as a single copy
for the table.
Answer: AC
10. View the Exhibit to examine the PL/SQL code for the GET_METADATA function. Which statement is
true about the metadata gathered by the function?
A. The end result is the creation of DDL for the TIMECARDS table with all instances of the HR schema
changed to SCOTT.
B. The end result is the creation of an XML document for all tables with all physical, storage, logging, and
other segment attributes.
C. The end result is the creation of DDL for all tables with all instances of the HR schema changed to
SCOTT along with all physical, storage, logging, and other segment attributes.
D. The end result is the creation of DDL for all tables and associated indexes with all instances of the HR
schema changed to SCOTT along with all physical, storage, logging, and other segment
attributes.
Answer: A
11. DATA_FILES is a directory object that contains the DETAILS.TXT text file.
You have the required permissions to access the directory object.
You create a table using the following command:
CREATE TABLE clob_tab(col2 CLOB);
View the Exhibit and examine the PL/SQL block that you execute for loading the external text file into the
table that currently has no rows. The PL/SQL block results in an error.
What correction must be done to ensure the PL/SQL block executes successfully?
A. The L_OUT variable must be initialized to an empty locator.
B. The L_OUT variable has to be declared as a temporary LOB.
C. The A_CLOB variable has to be declared as a temporary LOB.
D. The clause RETURNING col2 INTO a_clob should be added to the INSERT statement to correctly
initialize the locator.
Answer: D
12. Which two statements are true about associative arrays and varrays? (Choose two.)
A. Only varrays must start with the subscript 1.
B. Only varrays can be used as column types in database tables.
C. Both associative arrays and varrays must start with the subscript 1.
D. Both associative arrays and varrays can be used as column types in database tables.
Answer: AB
13. Examine the commands:
CREATE TYPE typ_course_tab IS VARRAY(5) OF VARCHAR2(20)
/
CREATE TYPE typ_course_nst
AS TABLE OF typ_course_tab
/
CREATE TABLE faculty
(faculty_id NUMBER(5),
faculty_name VARCHAR2(30),
courses typ_course_nst)
NESTED TABLE courses STORE AS course_stor_tab
/
INSERT INTO faculty
VALUES (101, ‘Jones’, NULL);
UPDATE (SELECT courses FROM faculty WHERE faculty_id=101) SET courses =
typ_course_nst(11,’Oracle’); Which statement is true about the execution of these commands?
A. All the commands execute successfully.
B. Only the first two commands execute successfully.
C. Only the first four commands execute successfully.
D. Only the first three commands execute successfully.
Answer: C
14. Examine the structure of the EMPLOYEES table in the SCOTT schema.
Name Null? Type
———————– ————— —————
EMPLOYEE_ID NOT NULL NUMBER(6)
FIRST_NAME VARCHAR2(20)
LAST_NAME NOT NULL VARCHAR2(25)
SALARY NOT NULL NUMBER(8,2)
COMMISSION_PCT NUMBER(2,2)
DEPARTMENT_ID NUMBER(4)
View the Exhibit and examine the code for the EMP_TOTSAL procedure created by user SCOTT.
Which statement is true regarding the EMP_TOTSAL procedure?
A. It is created successfully, but displays the correct output message only for existent employee IDs.
B. It is created successfully and displays the correct output message for both existent and nonexistent
employee IDs.
C. It generates an error because the %NOTFOUND attribute cannot be used in combination with a
SELECT INTO statement.
D. It generates an error because a user-defined exception has to be included whenever the %NOTFOUND
attribute is used in combination with a
SELECT INTO statement.
Answer: A
15. Examine the code in the following PL/SQL block:
DECLARE
TYPE NumList IS TABLE OF INTEGER;
List1 NumList := NumList(11,22,33,44);
BEGIN
List1.DELETE(2);
DBMS_OUTPUT.PUT_LINE
( ‘The last element# in List1 is ‘ || List1.LAST ||
‘ and total of elements is ‘||List1.COUNT);
List1.EXTEND(4,3);
END;
/
Which two statements are true about the above code? (Choose two.)
A. LAST and COUNT give different values.
B. LAST and COUNT give the same values.
C. The four new elements that are added contain the value 33.
D. The four new elements that are added contain the value 44.
Answer: AC
16. Which two types of query results cannot be stored in the query result cache? (Choose two.)
A. subquery results
B. results of a query having the SYSDATE function
C. results of a query having the GROUP BY clause
D. results of a query having the DATE data type in the WHERE clause
Answer: AB
17. Which two statements are true about the working of fine-grained access? (Choose two.)
A. Security policies can be associated only with tables, but not with views.
B. Different policies can be used for SELECT, INSERT, UPDATE, and DELETE statements.
C. User statements are dynamically modified by the Oracle server through a security policy function.
D. Fine-grained access control policies always remain in effect until they are dropped from a table or view.
Answer: BC
18. View the Exhibit.
How do you reduce the chances of SQL injection for the procedure?
A. Execute the SQL statement in V_STMT as dynamic SQL.
B. Remove the default value for the arguments in the procedure.
C. Convert the condition in the WHERE clause to be accepted from the user and concatenated.
D. Convert the SELECT statement to static SQL, placing the value of P_EMAIL into a local variable.
Answer: D
19. The database instance was started up using the automatic memory management feature. No value was
set for the RESULT_CACHE_MAX_SIZE parameter.
Examine the following initialization parameter settings for your database:
MEMORY_TARGET = 500M
RESULT_CACHE_MODE = MANUAL
You execute a query by using the result_cache hint. Which statement is true in this scenario?
A. The query results are not stored because no memory is allocated for the result cache.
B. The query results are stored and 0.5% of the memory target is allocated to the result cache.
C. The query results are stored and 0.25% of the memory target is allocated to the result cache.
D. The query results are not stored because the RESULT_CACHE_MODE parameter is not set to FORCE.
Answer: C
20. Examine the structure of the LOB_STORE table.
Name Null? Type
—————- ——– ————
LOB_ID NUMBER
VIDEO_CLIP BLOB
You create a ‘DATA_FILES’ directory object that contains the ‘IMAGE1.GIF’operating system (OS) file.
View the Exhibit and examine the LOAD_LOB procedure code that you execute for reading data from the
OS file into the BLOB column.
It is created with compilation errors.
What is the reason?
A. V_BLOB should be initialized to EMPTY_BLOB().
B. The WRITE routine of DBMS_LOB should be used instead of LOADFROMFILE.
C. The return type of DBMS_LOB.FILEEXISTS is not compatible with the IF statement.
D. OPEN, CLOSE, and READONLY routines of DBMS_LOB should be used instead of FILEOPEN,
FILECLOSE, and FILE_READONLY.
Answer: C
Free Testking Oracle 11g 1z0-055 9i OCPs New Features Exam Braindump
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Exam Number: 1Z0-055
Associated Certifications: Oracle Database 11g Administrator Certified Professional
OPN Certified Specialist
Exam Price: US$125
Duration: 120 minutes
Number of Questions: 84
Passing Score: 61%
Oracle Database 11g: New Features for Administrators
AND
Oracle Database 10g: New Features for Administrators
OR
Oracle Database 10g: New Features for Administrators Ed 2.1 LWC
OR
Oracle Database 11g: New Features for Oracle 9i DBAs
Training Opportunities for Oracle Partner Network Members
1. Examine the following PL/SQL block:
SET SERVEROUTPUT ON
SET LONG 10000
DECLARE report clob;
BEGIN
report := DBMS_SPM.EVOLVE_SQL_PLAN_BASELINE();
DBMS_OUTPUT.PUT_LINE(report);
END;
Which statement describes the effect of the execution of the above PL/SQL block?
A. The plan baselines are verified with the SQL profiles.
B. All fixed plan baselines are converted into nonfixed plan baselines.
C. All the nonaccepted SQL profiles are accepted into the plan baseline.
D. The nonaccepted plans in the SQL Management Base are verified with the existing plan baselines.
Answer: D
2. View the Exhibit to examine the details for an incident.
Which statement is true regarding the status of the incident?
A. The DBA is working on the incident and prefers that the incident be kept in the ADR.
B. The incident is now in the Done state and the ADR can select the incident to be purged.
C. The incident has been newly created and is in the process of collecting diagnostic information.
D. The data collection for the incident is complete and the incident can be packaged and sent to Oracle
Support.
Answer: D
3. You want to convert your existing non-ASM files to ASM files for the database PROD. Which method or
command would you use to accomplish this task?
A. Data Pump Export and Import
B. conventional export and import
C. the CONVERT command of RMAN
D. the BACKUP AS COPY.. command of RMAN
Answer: D
4. Which are the prerequisites for performing flashback transactions on your database? (Choose all that
apply.)
A. Supplemental log must be enabled.
B. Supplemental log must be enabled for the primary key.
C. Undo retention guarantee for the database must be configured.
D. Execute permission on the DBMS_FLASHBACK package must be granted to the user.
Answer: ABD
5. Which method would you use to undo the changes made by a particular transaction without affecting the
changes made by other transactions?
A. point-in-time recovery
B. execute the ROLLBACK command with transaction number
C. flashback the database to before the transaction was committed
D. determine all the necessary undo SQL statements from FLASHBACK_TRANSACTION_QUERY and
use them for recovery
Answer: D
6. When executing a SQL workload, you choose to generate execution plans only, without collecting
execution statistics. Which two statements describe the implications of this? (Choose two.)
A. It produces less accurate results of the comparison analysis.
B. It automatically calls the SQL Tuning Advisor for recommendations.
C. It shortens the time of execution and reduces the impact on system resources.
D. Only the changes in the execution plan, and not performance regression, are detected.
Answer: AC
7. While deploying a new application module, the software vendor ships the application software along with
appropriate SQL plan baselines for the new SQLs being introduced. Which two statements describe the
consequences? (Choose two.)
A. The plan baselines can be evolved over time to produce better performance.
B. The newly generated plans are directly placed into the SQL plan baseline without being verified.
C. The new SQL statements initially run with the plans that are known to produce good performance under
standard test configuration.
D. The optimizer does not generate new plans for the SQL statements for which the SQL plan baseline has
been imported.
Answer: AC
8. In your database, the RESULT_CACHE_MODE parameter has been set to MANUAL in the initialization
parameter file.
You issued the following command:
SQL>SELECT /*+ RESULT_CACHE */ sale_category, sum(sale_amt)
FROM sales
GROUP BY sale_category;
Where would the result of this query be stored?
A. PGA
B. large pool
C. shared pool
D. database buffer cache
Answer: C
9. Identify the activities performed as part of the Automatic SQL Tuning process in the maintenance window?
(Choose all that apply.)
A. generating the SQL profile
B. testing and accepting the SQL profile
C. generating a list of candidate SQLs for tuning
D. adding tuned SQL plans into the SQL plan baseline
E. tuning each SQL statement in the order of importance
F. generating baselines that include candidate SQL statement for tuning
Answer: ABCE
10. You performed an incomplete recovery and opened the database with the RESETLOGS option. The
LOG_ARCHIVE_FORMAT parameter is set to ‘ora_%t_%s_%r.log’. Which statement regarding the
archived redo log files, created in an earlier incarnation of the database, is true?
A. The archived redo log files will be overwritten.
B. The archived redo log files are deleted automatically.
C. The archived redo log files should be moved to some other location.
D. The archived redo log files are still maintained because the file names are unique.
Answer: D
11. View the Exhibit for the object interdependency diagram.
The PRODUCTS table is used to create the PRODCAT_VW view.
PRODCAT_VW is used in the GET_DATA procedure.
GET_DATA is called in the CHECK_DATA function.
A new column PROD_QTY is added to the PRODUCTS table.
How does this impact the status of the dependent objects?
A. All dependent objects remain valid.
B. Only the procedure and function become invalid and must be recompiled.
C. Only the view becomes invalid and gets automatically revalidated the next time it is used.
D. Only the procedure and function become invalid and get automatically revalidated the next time they are
called.
Answer: A
12. Which of the following information will be gathered by the SQL Test Case Builder for the problems
pertaining to SQL-related problems? (Choose all that apply.)
A. ADR diagnostic files
B. all the optimizer statistics
C. initialization parameter settings
D. PL/SQL functions, procedures, and packages
E. the table and index definitions and actual data
Answer: BCE
13. Your system has been upgraded from Oracle Database 10g to Oracle Database 11g. You imported SQL
Tuning Sets (STS) from the previous version. After changing the OPTIMIZER_FEATURE_ENABLE
parameter to 10.2.0.4 and running the SQL Performance Analyzer, you observed performance regression
for a few SQL statements.What would you do with these SQL statements?
A. Set OPTIMIZER_USE_PLAN_BASELINES to FALSE to prevent the use of regressed plans.
B. Capture the plans from the previous version using STS and then load them into the stored outline.
C. Capture the plans from the previous version using STS and then load them into SQL Management Base
(SMB).
D. Set OPTIMIZER_CAPTURE_SQL_PLAN_BASELINES to FALSE to prevent the plans from being
loaded to the SQL plan baseline.
Answer: C
14. Which setting enables the baselines by default in Oracle Database 11g?
A. setting the STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter to TYPICAL
B. adding filters to the Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM)
C. enabling Automated Maintenance Task using Oracle Enterprise Manager
D. setting the OPTIMIZER_USE_PENDING_STATISTICS parameter to TRUE
Answer: A
15. An online tablespace, TEST_TBS, is full and you realize that no server-managed tablespace threshold
alerts were generated for the TEST_TBS tablespace. What could be the reason, if the TEST_TBS
tablespace does not include autoextensible data files?
A. TEST_TBS is a small file tablespace.
B. TEST_TBS is a bigfile tablespace (BFT).
C. TEST_TBS is the default temporary tablespace.
D. TEST_TBS is a dictionary-managed tablespace.
Answer: D
16. While performing the backup of the flash recovery area, you notice that one of the archived redo log
files is missing. You have multiple destinations for archived redo log files.What implications does it have on
the backup of the flash recovery area?
A. The backup succeeds but it would be without the missing archived log.
B. The backup fails because one of the archived redo log files is missing.
C. The backup succeeds because it fails over to one of the alternative archived redo log destinations.
D. During backup, you are prompted for the alternative destination for the missing archived redo log file.
Answer: C
17. Which two statements are true with respect to the maintenance window? (Choose two.)
A. A DBA can enable or disable an individual task in all maintenance windows.
B. A DBA cannot change the duration of the maintenance window after it is created.
C. In case of a long maintenance window, all Automated Maintenance Tasks are restarted every four hours.
D. A DBA can control the percentage of the resource allocated to the Automated Maintenance Tasks in
each window.
Answer: AD
18. View the Exhibit exhibit1.
In the CUSTOMERS_OBE table, when the value of CUST_STATE_PROVINCE is “CA”, the value of
COUNTRY_ID is “US”
View the Exhibit exhibit2 to examine the commands and query plans.
The optimizer can sense 8 rows instead of 29 rows, which is the actual number of rows in the table. What
can you do to make the optimizer detect the actual selectivity?
A. Set the STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter to TYPICAL.
B. Change the STALE_PERCENT value for the CUSTOMERS_OBE table.
C. Set the OPTIMIZER_USE_PENDING_STATISTICS parameter to FALSE.
D. Create extended statistics for the CUST_STATE_PROVINCE and COUNTRY_ID columns.
Answer: D
19. You issued the following command:
CREATE GLOBAL TEMPORARY TABLE admin_work_area
(startdate DATE,
enddate DATE,
class CHAR(20))
ON COMMIT DELETE ROWS
TABLESPACE tbs_t1;
An index is then created on the ADMIN_WORK_AREA temporary table.
Which two statements are true regarding the TBS_T1 tablespace in the above command? (Choose two.)
A. It stores only the temporary table but not its indexes.
B. It stores both the temporary table as well as its indexes.
C. It must be a nondefault temporary tablespace for the database.
D. It can be a default or nondefault temporary tablespace for the database.
E. It must be the default temporary tablespace of the user who issues the command.
Answer: BD
20. View the Exhibit to examine the error during the database startup.
You open an RMAN session for the database instance. To repair the failure, you executed the following as
the first command in the RMAN session:
RMAN> REPAIR FAILURE;
Which statement describes the consequence of the command?
A. The command performs the recovery and closes the failures.
B. The command only displays the advice and the RMAN script required for repair.
C. The command produces an error because the ADVISE FAILURE command has not been executed
before the REPAIR FAILURE command.
D. The command executes the RMAN script to repair the failure and removes the entry from the Automatic
Diagnostic Repository (ADR).
Answer: C
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Oracle Database 11g: Administration II
Exam Number: 1Z0-053
Associated Certifications: Oracle Database 11g Administrator Certified Professional
OPN Certified Specialist
Exam Price: $125 US
Duration: 105 minutes
Number of Questions: 80
Passing Score: 66%
Recommended Training and Preparation Additional Information & Resources Exam Topics Fraudulent Activity Policy
Recommended Training and Preparation
Oracle Database 11g: Administration Workshop II
Training Opportunities for Oracle Partner Network Members
Database Architecture and ASM
[ ] Describe Automatic Storage Management (ASM)
[ ] Set up initialization parameter files for ASM and database instances
[ ] Start up and shut down ASM instances
[ ] Administer ASM disk groups
Configuring for Recoverability
[ ] Configure multiple archive log file destinations to increase availability
[ ] Define, apply and use a retention policy
[ ] Configure the Flash Recovery Area
[ ] Use Flash Recovery Area
Using the RMAN Recovery Catalog
[ ] Identify situations that require RMAN recovery catalog
[ ] Create and configure a recovery catalog
[ ] Synchronize the recovery catalog
[ ] Create and Use RMAN stored scripts
[ ] Back up the recovery catalog
[ ] Create and use a virtual private catalog
Configuring Backup Specifications
[ ] Configure backup settings
[ ] Allocate channels to use in backing up
[ ] Configure backup optimization
Using RMAN to Create Backups
[ ] Create image file backups
[ ] Create a whole database backup
[ ] Enable fast incremental backup
[ ] Create duplex backup and back up backup sets
[ ] Create an archival backup for long-term retention
[ ] Create a multisection, compressed and encrypted backup
[ ] Report on and maintain backups
Performing User-Managed Backup and Recovery
[ ] Recover from a lost TEMP file
[ ] Recover from a lost redo log group
[ ] Recover from the loss of password file
[ ] Perform user-managed complete database recovery
[ ] Perform user-managed incomplete database recovery
[ ] Perform user-managed and server managed backups
[ ] Identify the need of backup mode
[ ] Back up and recover a control file
Using RMAN to Perform Recovery
[ ] Perform complete recovery from a critical or noncritical data file loss using RMAN
[ ] Perform incomplete recovery using RMAN
[ ] Recover using incrementally updated backups
[ ] Switch to image copies for fast recovery
[ ] Restore a database onto a new host
[ ] Recover using a backup control file
[ ] Perform Disaster recovery
Using RMAN to Duplicate a Database
[ ] Creating a duplicate database
[ ] Using a duplicate database
Performing Tablespace Point-in-Time Recovery
[ ] Identify the situations that require TSPITR
[ ] Perform automated TSPITR
Monitoring and Tuning RMAN
[ ] Monitoring RMAN sessions and jobs
[ ] Tuning RMAN
[ ] Configure RMAN for Asynchronous I/O
Using Flashback Technology
[ ] Restore dropped tables from the recycle bin
[ ] Perform Flashback Query
[ ] Use Flashback Transaction
Additional Flashback Operations
[ ] Perform Flashback Table operations
[ ] Configure, Monitor Flashback Database and Perform Flashback Database operations
[ ] Set up and use a Flashback Data Archive
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Diagnosing the Database
[ ] Set up Automatic Diagnostic Repository
[ ] Using Support Workbench
[ ] Perform Block Media Recovery
Managing Memory
[ ] Implement Automatic Memory Management
[ ] Manually configure SGA parameters
[ ] Configure automatic PGA memory management
Managing Database Performance
[ ] Use the SQL Tuning Advisor
[ ] Use the SQL Access Advisor to tune a workload
[ ] Understand Database Replay
Space Management
[ ] Manage resumable space allocation
[ ] Describe the concepts of transportable tablespaces and databases
[ ] Reclaim wasted space from tables and indexes by using the segment shrink functionality
Managing Resources
[ ] Understand the database resource manager
[ ] Create and use Database Resource Manager Components
Automating Tasks with the Scheduler
[ ] Create a job, program, and schedule
[ ] Use a time-based or event-based schedule for executing Scheduler jobs
[ ] Create lightweight jobs
[ ] Use job chains to perform a series of related tasks
Administering the Scheduler
[ ] Create Windows and Job Classes
[ ] Use advanced Scheduler concepts to prioritize jobs
Globalization
[ ] Customize language-dependent behavior for the database and individual sessions
[ ] Working with database and NLS character sets
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Free Testking Oracle 1Z0-052 11g Administration I Exam Braindmp
Free Testking Oracle 1Z0-052 11g Administration I Exam Braindmp, Oracle Database 11g: Administration I : 1z0-052 ExamQuestions and Answers : 209 Q&As Updated: December 16th , 2008 Price: $129.99 $89.99 Product DescriptionExam Number/Code: 1z0-052
Exam Name: Oracle Database 11g: Administration I
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Exam 1Z0-052 Oracle Database 11g: Administration I has just been released in full production
This new exam is part of the Oracle Certified Oracle Database 11g Administrator track, combining training, experience, and testing to endorse candidates with a strong foundation and expertise in the industry’s most advanced database management system.
Exam 1Z0-052 covers topics such as:
exploring Oracle database architectures,
preparing database environments,
creating Oracle databases,
managing Oracle instances,
configuring Oracle network environments,
managing database storage structures,
administering user security,
managing schema objects,
managing data and concurrency,
managing undo data,
implementing Oracle database security,
database maintenance,
performance management,
intelligent infrastructure enhancements,
backup and recovery concepts,
performing database backups,
performing database recovery, and
moving data.
The exam contains 70 questions, 90 minutes allowed for completion, and requires a score of 66% to pass. Cost is $125 USD, with immediate registration available through Prometric testing centers worldwide.
1. You perform differential incremental level 1 backups of your database on each working day and level 0
backup on Sundays, to tape. Which two statements are true about differential incremental backups?
(Choose two.)
A. The backup performed on Sundays contains all the blocks that have ever been used in the database.
B. The backup performed on Sundays contains all the blocks that have changed since the last level 1
backup.
C. The backup performed on each working day contains all the blocks that have changed since the last
level 0 backup.
D. The backup performed on Monday contains all the blocks that have changed since the level 0 backup,
and every other working day contains all the blocks that have changed since the level 1 backup.
Answer: AD
3. Identify two situations in which you can use Data Recovery Advisor for recovery. (Choose two.)
A. The database files are corrupted when the database is open.
B. The user has dropped an important table that needs to be recovered.
C. The archived redo log files are missing for which the backup is not available.
D. The database is not opening because the required database files are missing.
Answer: AD
4. You have two tables with referential integrity enforced between them. You need to insert data to the child
table first because it is going to be a long transaction and data for the parent table will be available in a later
stage, which can be inserted as part of the same transaction.
View the Exhibit to examine the commands used to create tables.
Which action would you take to delay the referential integrity checking until the end of the transaction?
A. Set the constraint to deferred before starting the transaction.
B. Alter the constraint to NOVALIDATE state before starting the transaction.
C. Enable the resumable mode for the session before starting the transaction.
D. Set the COMMIT_WAIT parameter to FORCE_WAIT for the session before starting the transaction.
Answer: A
5. Your database is open and the LISTENER listener is running. The new DBA of the system stops the
listener by using the command:
LSNRCTL> STOP
What happens to the sessions that are presently connected to the database instance?
A. The sessions are able to perform only queries.
B. The sessions are not affected and continue to function normally.
C. The sessions are terminated and the active transactions are rolled back.
D. The sessions are not allowed to perform any operations till the listener is started.
Answer: B
6. You executed this command to create a temporary table:
SQL> CREATE GLOBAL TEMPORARY TABLE report_work_area (startdate DATE, enddate DATE, class
CHAR(20)) ON COMMIT PRESERVE ROWS;
Which statement is true about the rows inserted into the REPORT_WORK_AREA table during a
transaction?
A. The rows stay in the table only until session termination.
B. The rows stay in the table only until the next transaction starts on the table.
C. The rows are visible to all current sessions after the transaction is committed.
D. The rows stay available for subsequent sessions after the transaction is committed.
Answer: A
7. In which of the scenarios will the DBA perform recovery? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The alert log file is corrupted.
B. A tablespace is accidentally dropped.
C. One of the redo log members is corrupted.
D. A database user terminates the session abnormally.
E. The hard disk on which the data file is stored is corrupted.
Answer: BE
8. Note the following structures in your database server:
1. Extents
2. OS Blocks
3. Tablespace
4. Segments
5. Oracle Data Block
Which option has the correct arrangement of these structures from the smallest to the largest?
A. 2, 5, 1, 4, 3
B. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
C. 5, 2, 1, 3, 4
D. 2, 1, 5, 4, 3
Answer: A
9. You are working on an instance started using the SPFILE. You want to move the Flash Recovery Area of
your database to a new location. You want the Flashback log files to be stored in the new location. Given
below are the steps to accomplish the task in random order:
1) Shut down the instance.
2) Change the value of the DB_RECOVERY_FILE_DEST initialization parameter to a new value.
3) Execute the ALTER DATABASE FLASHBACK OFF command.
4) Start up the instance and mount the database.
5) Execute the ALTER DATABASE FLASHBACK ON command.
6) Open the database.
Select the correct order in which these tasks need to be performed.
A. 2, 1, 4, 3, 5, 6
B. 1, 4, 3, 2, 6, 5
C. 1, 4, 2, 6, 3, 5
D. 3, 2, 1, 4, 5, 6
Answer: A
10. A user, who is authenticated externally, logs in to a remote machine and connects to the database
instance. What action would you take to ensure that a user cannot connect to the database instance by
merely logging in to a remote machine?
A. Set REMOTE_OS_ROLES to FALSE.
B. Set the OS_ROLES parameter to FALSE.
C. Set the REMOTE_OS_AUTHENT parameter to FALSE.
D. Set the REMOTE_LOGIN_PASSWORD_FILE parameter to NONE.
Answer: C
11. Your database instance is started using the server parameter file (SPFILE). You executed a command
to change the value of the LOG_BUFFER initialization parameter:
ALTER SYSTEM SET LOG_BUFFER=32M SCOPE=BOTH;
What would be the outcome of this command?
A. The command succeeds only if Automatic Memory Management is not enabled.
B. The command succeeds, but you need to restart the database for changes to take effect.
C. The command returns an error because the size of the redo log buffer cannot be changed dynamically.
D. The parameter value is changed and it comes into effect as soon as space becomes available in the
System Global Area (SGA).
Answer: C
12. The database instance is currently using SPFILE. View the Exhibit and examine the error that you
received while running the DB Structure Integrity check.
Given below are the steps to recover from the error in random order:
1. Shut down the instance, if not already done.
2. Copy one of the remaining control files to a new location.
3. Change the value of the CONTROL_FILES initialization parameter to correspond to the new location
of the control files.
4. Start up the database instance to the NOMOUNT stage.
5. Recover the database to the point of failure of the control file.
6. Open the database.
Identify the correct sequence of steps?
A. 1, 2, 4, 3, 5, 6
B. 2, 4, 3, 5, 6; 1 not required
C. 4, 5, 6, 2, 3; 1 not required
D. 5, 2, 3, 4; 1 and 6 not required
Answer: A
13. View the Exhibit and examine the parameters.
User A executes the following command to update the TRANS table:
SQL> UPDATE B.trans SET tr_amt=tr_amt+500 WHERE c_code=’C005′;
Before user A issues a COMMIT or ROLLBACK command, user B executes the following command on the
TRANS table:
SQL> ALTER TABLE trans MODIFY (tr_type VARCHAR2(3));
What would happen in this scenario?
A. The ALTER TABLE command modifies the column successfully.
B. The DDL operation gets higher priority and transaction for user A is rolled back.
C. The ALTER TABLE command waits indefinitely until user A ends the transaction.
D. The ALTER TABLE command fails after waiting for 60 seconds due to the resource being busy.
Answer: D
14. View the Exhibit to examine the details for an incident.
Which statement is true regarding the status of the incident?
A. The DBA is working on the incident and prefers that the incident be kept in the ADR.
B. The incident is now in the Done state and the ADR can select the incident to be purged.
C. The incident has been newly created and is in the process of collecting diagnostic information.
D. The data collection for the incident is complete and the incident can be packaged and sent to Oracle
Support.
Answer: D
15. User A executes the following command to drop a large table in your database:
SQL> DROP TABLE trans;
while the drop table operation is in progress, user B executes the following command on the same table:
SQL> DELETE FROM trans WHERE tr_type=’SL’;
Which statement is true regarding the DELETE command?
A. It fails to delete the records because the records are locked in SHARE mode.
B. It deletes the rows successfully because the table is locked in SHARE mode.
C. It fails to delete the records because the table is locked in EXCLUSIVE mode.
D. It deletes the rows successfully because the table is locked in SHARE ROW EXCLUSIVE mode.
Answer: C
16. Which is the correct description of a pinned buffer in the database buffer cache?
A. The buffer is currently being accessed.
B. The buffer is empty and has not been used.
C. The contents of the buffer have changed and must be flushed to the disk by the DBWn process.
D. The buffer is a candidate for immediate aging out and its contents are synchronized with the block
contents on the disk.
Answer: A
17. View the Exhibit.
Which statements are true regarding the USERS tablespace? (Choose all that apply.)
A. A bitmap is used to record free extents.
B. Free extents information is managed within the tablespace.
C. Free extents information is managed in the SYSAUX tablespace.
D. The data dictionary tables are updated when extents are allocated or deallocated.
Answer: AB
18. You are working on a new Oracle Database 11g server, where only the software is installed and no
database is created. You plan to create a database on this server using the Database Configuration
Assistant (DBCA).
Some of the requirements set for your database creation task are:
1. Configure the database to operate in shared server mode.
2. Disable automatic maintenance tasks such as optimizer statistics collection.
3. Configure a naming method to help the remote user connect to the database instance.
4. Use Automatic Storage Management (ASM) for storing the database files.
5. Configure daily database backup to flash recovery area.
6. Configure Enterprise Manager Database Control to manage the database.
Which of these requirements can be met while creating the database?
A. 4 and 6
B. 2, 3, 4, and 6
C. 1, 2, 4, 5, and 6
D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6
Answer: C
19. Examine the following output:
SQL> SELECT index_name,status FROM dba_indexes WHERE status=’UNUSABLE’;
INDEX_NAME STATUS
—————————— ———–
EIND UNUSABLE
Which two statements about the above index are true? (Choose two.)
A. It is ignored by the query optimizer.
B. It is not used while the index is being rebuilt.
C. The index cannot be rebuilt, and has to be re-created.
D. The index is automatically rebuilt when used the next time.
Answer: AB
20. View the Exhibit to examine the error that occurred during the database startup.
You opened an RMAN session for the database. To repair the failure, you executed the following command
as the first RMAN command:
RMAN>REPAIR FAILURE;
Which statement describes the consequence of this command?
A. The command performs the recovery and closes the failure.
B. The command only displays the advice and the RMAN script required for recovery.
C. The command executes the RMAN script to repair the failure and remove the entry from the Automatic
Diagnostic Repository (ADR).
D. The command produces an error because the ADVISE FAILURE command was not executed before the
REPAIR FAILURE command.
Answer: D
Which two statements are true about the Automatic Workload Repository (AWR)? (Choose two.)
A.All AWR tables belong to the SYSTEM schema.
B.The AWR contains systemwide tracing and logging information.
C.The snapshots collected by the AWR are accessible through data dictionary views.
D.The snapshots collected by the AWR are used by selftuning
components in the database.
Answer: CD
While observing the index statistics, you find that an index is highly fragmented, thereby resulting in
poor database performance. Which option would you use to reduce fragmentation without affecting the
users who are currently using the index?
A.Validate the index structure using the ANALYZE…INDEX command.
B.Rebuild the index using the ALTER INDEX..REBUILD ONLINE command.
C.Change the block space utilization parameters using the ALTER INDEX command.
D.Deallocate the unused space in the index using the ALTER INDEX..DEALLOCATE UNUSED command.
Answer: B
Your test database is running in NOARCHIVELOG mode. Which statement is true regarding the type of
backups that can be performed on the database?
A.You can perform online whole database backups.
B.You can perform offline whole database backups.
C.You cannot perform schemalevel
export/import operations.
D.You can perform the backup of only the SYSTEM tablespace when the database is open.
Answer: B
Note the following points describing various utilities in Oracle Database 11g:
1: It enables the highspeed
transfer of data from one database to another.
2: It provides a complete solution for the backup, restoration, and recovery needs of the entire database.
3: It enables the loading of data from an external file into an Oracle database.
4: It provides a tape backup management for the Oracle ecosystem.
Which point describes Oracle Secure Backup?
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
E.1, 2, and 4
F.1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: D
You have issued a SHUTDOWN ABORT command to bring down your database instance. Consider
the steps that will be performed later when you open the database:
1: SGA is allocated.
2: Control file is read.
3: Redo log files are read.
4: Instance recovery is started.
5: Background processes are started.
6: Data files are checked for consistency.
7: Server parameter file or the initialization parameter file is read.
Which option has the correct order in which these steps occur?
A.7, 1, 5, 2, 3, 6, 4
B.1, 2, 3,7, 5, 6, 4
C.7, 1, 4, 5, 2, 3, 6
D.1, 7, 5, 4, 2, 3, 6
Answer: A
Observe the information in the columns:
1: The SGAa. Text and parsed forms of all SQL statements
2: The cursor stateb. Runtime
memory values for the SQL statement, such as rows retrieved
3: Usersession
datac. Security and resource usage information
4: The stack spaced. Local variables for the process
Which option has the correct match between the memory areas and their contents?
A.1c,
2b,
3d,
4a
B.1c,
2b,
3d,
4a
C.1a,
2b,
3c,
4d
D.1a,
2b,
3d,
4c
Answer: C
Examine the following statement that is used to modify the constraint on the SALES table:
SQL> ALTER TABLE SALES MODIFY CONSTRAINT pk DISABLE VALIDATE;
Which three statements are true regarding the above command? (Choose three.)
A.The constraint remains valid.
B.The index on the constraint is dropped.
C.It allows the loading of data into the table using SQL *Loader.
D.New data conforms to the constraint, but existing data is not checked.
E.It allows the data manipulation on the table using INSERT/UPDATE/DELETE SQL statements.
Answer: ABC
Identify the memory component from which memory may be allocated for:
1: Session memory for the shared server
2: Buffers for I/O slaves
3: Oracle Database Recovery Manager (RMAN) backup and restore operations
A.Large Pool
B.Redo Log Buffer
C.Database Buffer Cache
D.Program Global Area (PGA)
Answer: A
Which is the correct description of a pinned buffer in the database buffer cache?
A.The buffer is currently being accessed.
B.The buffer is empty and has not been used.
C.The contents of the buffer have changed and must be flushed to the disk by the DBWn process.
D.The buffer is a candidate for immediate aging out and its contents are synchronized with the block
contents on the disk.
Answer: A
You have executed this command to change the size of the database buffer cache:
SQL> ALTER SYSTEM SET DB_CACHE_SIZE=2516582;
System altered.
To verify the change in size, you executed this command:
SQL> SHOW PARAMETER DB_CACHE_SIZE
NAME TYPE VALUE
db_
cache_size big integer 4194304
Why is the value set to 4194304 and not to 2516582?
A.because 4194304 is the granule size
B.because 4194304 is the standard block size
C.because 4194304 is the largest nonstandard block size defined in the database
D.because 4194304 is the total size of data already available in the database buffer cache
Answer: A
These are points that describe the contents of different memory components:
1: Descriptive information or metadata about schema objects that are queried by using SQL statements
2: The runtime
area for data manipulation language (DML) or data definition language (DDL) statements
3: Results of SQL queries and PL/SQL functions
4: Executable forms of SQL cursors, PL/SQL programs, and Java classes
5: The information necessary to reconstruct changes made to the database by a transaction
Which of these will be stored in the Shared Pool if the necessary configurations are done?
A.1 and 2
B.2 and 5
C.1, 3, and 4
D.3, 4, and 5
E.1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: C
Which two statements are true about Shared SQL Area and Private SQL Area? (Choose two.)
A.Shared SQL Area will be allocated in the shared pool.
B.Shared SQL Area will be allocated when a session starts.
C.Shared SQL Area will be allocated in the large pool always.
D.Private SQL Area will be allocated in the Program Global Area (PGA) always.
E.Shared SQL Area and Private SQL Area will be allocated in the PGA or large pool.
F.The number of Private SQL Area allocations is dependent on the OPEN_CURSORS parameter.
Answer: AF
Note the following functionalities of various background processes:
1: Record the checkpoint information in data file headers.
2: Perform recovery at instance startup.
3: Cleanup unused temporary segments.
4: Free the resources used by a user process when it fails.
5: Dynamically register database services with listeners.
6: Monitor sessions for idle session timeout.
Which option has the correct functionalities listed for a background process?
A.Archiver Process (ARCn): 1, 2, 5
B.System Monitor Process (SMON): 1, 4, 5
C.Process Monitor Process (PMON): 4, 5, 6
D.Database Writer Process (DBWn): 1, 3, 4
Answer: C
Note the functionalities of various background processes:
1: Perform recovery at instance startup.
2: Free the resources used by a user process when it fails.
3: Cleanup the database buffer cache when a process fails.
4: Dynamically register database services with listeners.
5: Monitor sessions for idle session timeout.
6: Cleanup unused temporary segments.
7: Record the checkpoint information in control file.
Which option has the correct functionalities listed for a background process?
A.Checkpoint (CKPT): 1, 2, 5
B.System Monitor (SMON): 1, 6
C.Process Monitor (PMON): 4, 6, 7
D.Database Writer (DBWR): 1, 3, 4
Answer: B
Which two statements about the background process of the database writer are true? (Choose two.)
A.It is possible to have multiple database writers in an Oracle instance.
B.It writes dirty buffers, if any, to data files whenever a checkpoint occurs.
C.It writes dirty buffers, if any, to data files whenever a transaction commits.
D.It writes dirty buffers, if any, to data files before the log writer (LGWR) writes.
Answer: AB
20. You have set Tablespace Full Metrics Threshold values for the USERS tablespace as follows:
Warning (%): 90
Critical (%): 95
Which background process is responsible for issuing alerts when the threshold is crossed?
A.System monitor (SMON)
B.Process monitor (PMON)
C.Memory manager process (MMAN)
D.Manageability Monitor process (MMON)
Answer: D
21. Which three statements are true about logical structures of the Oracle database? (Choose three.)
A.Each segment contains one or more extents.
B.Multiple tablespaces can share a single data file.
C.A data block is the smallest unit of input/output (I/O) in data files.
D.It is possible to have tablespaces of different block sizes in a database.
E.Each data block in the database always corresponds to one operating system block.
Answer: ACD
Identify the logical structure that will never have more than one data segment created for it.
A.external table
B.partitioned table
C.partitioned index
D.nonclustered table
E.global temporary table
Answer: D
23. Note the following structures in your database server:
1: Extents
2: OS Blocks
3: Tablespace
4: Segments
5: Oracle Data Block
Which option has the correct arrangement of these structures from the smallest to the largest?
A.2, 5, 1, 4, 3
B.1, 2, 3, 4, 5
C.5, 2, 1, 3, 4
D.2, 1, 5, 4, 3
Answer: A
24. Which two statements correctly describe the relation between a data file and the logical database
structures? (Choose two.)
A.An extent cannot spread across data files.
B.A segment cannot spread across data files.
C.A data file can belong to only one tablespace.
D.A data file can have only one segment created in it.
E.A data block can spread across multiple data files as it can consist of multiple operating system (OS)
blocks.
Answer: AC
25. Which three operations require undo data? (Choose three.)
A.committing a transaction
B.flashing back a transaction
C.recovering a failed transaction
D.running a readconsistent
query
E.changing a tablespace status from READ ONLY to READ WRITE
Answer: BCD
26. Which two statements are true regarding undo tablespaces? (Choose two.)
A.The database can have more than one undo tablespace.
B.The UNDO_TABLESPACE parameter is valid in both automatic and manual undo management.
C.Undo segments automatically grow and shrink as needed, acting as circular storage buffer for their
assigned transactions.
D.An undo tablespace is automatically created if the UNDO_TABLESPACE parameter is not set and the
UNDO_MANAGEMENT parameter is set to AUTO during the database instance start up.
Answer: AC
27. Which two statements are true regarding transactions in an Oracle database? (Choose two.)
A.Multiple transactions can use the same undo segment.
B.A transaction is assigned an undo segment when it is started.
C.More than one transaction cannot share the same extent in the undo tablespace.
D.The transactions use system undo segment to store undo data if all the segments in the undo
tablespace are used.
Answer: AB
Your database instance is configured with automatic undo management and the UNDO_RETENTION
parameter is set to 900 seconds. You executed the following command to enable retention guarantee:
SQL> ALTER TABLESPACE undotbs1 RETENTION GUARANTEE;
What effect would this command have on the database?
A.The extents in the undo tablespace retain data until the next full database backup.
B.The extents containing committed undo in the undo tablespace are not overwritten for at least 15
minutes.
C.The extents containing committed data in the undo tablespace are not overwritten until the instance is
shut down.
D.The extents containing committed undo in the undo tablespace are transferred to Flash Recovery Area
before being overwritten.
Answer: B
In which situation may the UNDO_RETENTION parameter be ignored, even if it is set to a value?
A.when the data file of the undo tablespace is autoextensible
B.when there are more than one undo tablespaces available in the database
C.when the undo tablespace is of a fixed size and retention guarantee is not enabled
D.when the undo tablespace is autoextensible and retention guarantee is not enabled
Answer: C
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Exam Name: Oracle Database: SQL Fundamentals I
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1. View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the SALES, CUSTOMERS, PRODUCTS, and TIMES
tables.
The PROD_ID column is the foreign key in the SALES table, which references the PRODUCTS table.
Similarly, the CUST_ID and TIME_ID columns are also foreign keys in the SALES table referencing the
CUSTOMERS and TIMES tables, respectively.
Evaluate the following CREATE TABLE command:
CREATE TABLE new_sales(prod_id, cust_id, order_date DEFAULT SYSDATE)
AS
SELECT prod_id, cust_id, time_id
FROM sales;
Which statement is true regarding the above command?
A. The NEW_SALES table would not get created because the DEFAULT value cannot be specified in the
column definition.
B. The NEW_SALES table would get created and all the NOT NULL constraints defined on the specified
columns would be passed to the new table.
C. The NEW_SALES table would not get created because the column names in the CREATE TABLE
command and the SELECT clause do not match.
D. The NEW_SALES table would get created and all the FOREIGN KEY constraints defined on the
specified columns would be passed to the new table.
Answer: B
2. View the Exhibit to examine the description for the SALES table.
Which views can have all DML operations performed on it? (Choose all that apply.)
A. CREATE VIEW v3
AS SELECT * FROM SALES
WHERE cust_id = 2034
WITH CHECK OPTION;
B. CREATE VIEW v1
AS SELECT * FROM SALES
WHERE time_id <= SYSDATE - 2*365
WITH CHECK OPTION;
C. CREATE VIEW v2
AS SELECT prod_id, cust_id, time_id FROM SALES
WHERE time_id <= SYSDATE - 2*365
WITH CHECK OPTION;
D. CREATE VIEW v4
AS SELECT prod_id, cust_id, SUM(quantity_sold) FROM SALES
WHERE time_id <= SYSDATE - 2*365
GROUP BY prod_id, cust_id
WITH CHECK OPTION;
Answer: AB
3. You need to extract details of those products in the SALES table where the PROD_ID column contains
the string '_D123'.
Which WHERE clause could be used in the SELECT statement to get the required output?
A. WHERE prod_id LIKE '%_D123%' ESCAPE '_'
B. WHERE prod_id LIKE '%\_D123%' ESCAPE '\'
C. WHERE prod_id LIKE '%_D123%' ESCAPE '%_'
D. WHERE prod_id LIKE '%\_D123%' ESCAPE '\_'
Answer: B
4. Which two statements are true regarding single row functions? (Choose two.)
A. They a ccept only a single argument.
B. They c an be nested only to two levels.
C. Arguments can only be column values or constants.
D. They a lways return a single result row for every row of a queried table.
E. They c an return a data type value different from the one that is referenced.
Answer: DE
5. Which SQL statements would display the value 1890.55 as $1,890.55? (Choose three .)
A. SELECT TO_CHAR(1890.55,'$0G000D00')
FROM DUAL;
B. SELECT TO_CHAR(1890.55,'$9,999V99')
FROM DUAL;
C. SELECT TO_CHAR(1890.55,'$99,999D99')
FROM DUAL;
D. SELECT TO_CHAR(1890.55,'$99G999D00')
FROM DUAL;
E. SELECT TO_CHAR(1890.55,'$99G999D99')
FROM DUAL;
Answer: ADE
6. Examine the structure of the SHIPMENTS table:
name Null Type
PO_ID NOT NULL NUMBER(3)
PO_DATE NOT NULL DATE
SHIPMENT_DATE NOT NULL DATE
SHIPMENT_MODE VARCHAR2(30)
SHIPMENT_COST NUMBER(8,2)
You want to generate a report that displays the PO_ID and the penalty amount to be paid if the
SHIPMENT_DATE is later than one month from the PO_DATE. The penalty is $20 per day.
Evaluate the following two queries:
SQL> SELECT po_id, CASE
WHEN MONTHS_BETWEEN (shipment_date,po_date)>1 THEN
TO_CHAR((shipment_date – po_date) * 20) ELSE ‘No Penalty’ END PENALTY
FROM shipments;
SQL>SELECT po_id, DECODE
(MONTHS_BETWEEN (po_date,shipment_date)>1,
TO_CHAR((shipment_date – po_date) * 20), ‘No Penalty’) PENALTY
FROM shipments;
Which statement is true regarding the above commands?
A. Both execute successfully and give correct results.
B. Only the first query executes successfully but gives a wrong result.
C. Only the first query executes successfully and gives the correct result.
D. Only the second query executes successfully but gives a wrong result.
E. Only the second query executes successfully and gives the correct result.
Answer: C
7. Which two statements are true regarding the USING and ON clauses in table joins? (Choose two.)
A. Both USING and ON clauses can be used for equijoins and nonequijoins.
B. A maximum of one pair of columns can be joined between two tables using the ON clause.
C. The ON clause can be used to join tables on columns that have different names but compatible data
types.
D. The WHERE clause can be used to apply additional conditions in SELECT statements containing the
ON or the USING clause.
Answer: CD
8. View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the CUSTOMERS table.
Which two tasks would require subqueries or joins to be executed in a single statement? (Choose two.)
A. listing of customers who do not have a credit limit and were born before 1980
B. finding the number of customers, in each city, whose marital status is ‘married’
C. finding the average credit limit of male customers residing in ‘Tokyo’ or ‘Sydney’
D. listing of those customers whose credit limit is the same as the credit limit of customers residing in the
city ‘Tokyo’
E. finding the number of customers, in each city, whose credit limit is more than the average credit limit of all
the customers
Answer: DE
9. Which statement is true regarding the INTERSECT operator?
A. It ignores NULL values.
B. Reversing the order of the intersected tables alters the result.
C. The names of columns in all SELECT statements must be identical.
D. The number of columns and data types must be identical for all SELECT statements in the query.
Answer: D
10. View the Exhibit; e xamine the structure of the PROMOTIONS table.
Each promotion has a duration of at least seven days .
Your manager has asked you to generate a report, which provides the weekly cost for each promotion
done to l date.
Which query would achieve the required result?
A. SELECT promo_name, promo_cost/promo_end_date-promo_begin_date/7
FROM promotions;
B. SELECT promo_name,(promo_cost/promo_end_date-promo_begin_date)/7
FROM promotions;
C. SELECT promo_name, promo_cost/(promo_end_date-promo_begin_date/7)
FROM promotions;
D. SELECT promo_name, promo_cost/((promo_end_date-promo_begin_date)/7)
FROM promotions;
Answer: D
11. View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the PRODUCTS table.
All products have a list price.
You issue the following command to display the total price of each product after a discount of 25% and a tax
of 15% are applied on it. Freight charges of $100 have to be applied to all the products.
SQL>SELECT prod_name, prod_list_price -(prod_list_price*(25/100))
+(prod_list_price -(prod_list_price*(25/100))*(15/100))+100
AS “TOTAL PRICE”
FROM products;
What would be the outcome if all the parenthese s are removed from the above statement?
A. It produces a syntax error.
B. The result remains unchanged.
C. The total price value would be lower than the correct value.
D. The total price value would be higher than the correct value.
Answer: B
12. You need to produce a report where each customer’s credit limit has been incremented by $1000. In the
output, t he customer’s last name should have the heading Name and the incremented credit limit should
be labeled New Credit Limit. The column headings should have only the first letter of each word in
uppercase .
Which statement would accomplish this requirement?
A. SELECT cust_last_name Name, cust_credit_limit + 1000
“New Credit Limit”
FROM customers;
B. SELECT cust_last_name AS Name, cust_credit_limit + 1000
AS New Credit Limit
FROM customers;
C. SELECT cust_last_name AS “Name”, cust_credit_limit + 1000
AS “New Credit Limit”
FROM customers;
D. SELECT INITCAP(cust_last_name) “Name”, cust_credit_limit + 1000
INITCAP(”NEW CREDIT LIMIT”)
FROM customers;
Answer: C
13. View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the PRODUCTS table.
You need to generate a report in the following format:
CATEGORIES
5MP Digital Photo Camera’s category is Photo
Y Box’s category is Electronics
Envoy Ambassador’s category is Hardware
Which two queries would give the required output? (Choose two.)
A. SELECT prod_name q”’s category is ‘ prod_category CATEGORIES
FROM products;
B. SELECT prod_name q’['s ]‘category is ‘ prod_category CATEGORIES
FROM products;
C. SELECT prod_name q’\’s\’ ‘ category is ‘ prod_category CATEGORIES
FROM products;
D. SELECT prod_name q’<'s >‘ ‘category is ‘ prod_category CATEGORIES
FROM products;
Answer: CD
14. Using the CUSTOMERS table, you need to generate a report that shows 50% of each credit amount
in each income level. The report should NOT show any repeated credit amounts in each income level.
Which query would give the required result?
A. SELECT cust_income_level, DISTINCT cust_credit_limit * 0.50
AS “50% Credit Limit”
FROM customers;
B. SELECT DISTINCT cust_income_level, DISTINCT cust_credit_limit * 0.50
AS “50% Credit Limit”
FROM customers;
C. SELECT DISTINCT cust_income_level ‘ ‘ cust_credit_limit * 0.50
AS “50% Credit Limit”
FROM customers;
D. SELECT cust_income_level ‘ ‘ cust_credit_limit * 0.50 AS “50% Credit Limit”
FROM customers;
Answer: C
15. View the Exhibit and examine the data in the CUSTOMERS table.
Evaluate the following query:
SQL> SELECT cust_name AS “NAME”, cust_credit_limit/2 AS MIDPOINT,MIDPOINT+100 AS “MAX
LOWER LIMIT”
FROM customers;
The above query produces an error on execution.
What is the reason for the error?
A. An alias cannot be used in an expression.
B. The a lias NAME should not be enclosed with in double quotation marks .
C. The MIDPOINT+100 expression gives an error because CUST_CREDIT_LIMIT contains NULL
values.
D. The a lias MIDPOINT should be enclosed with in double quotation marks for the
CUST_CREDIT_LIMIT/2 expression .
Answer: A
16. Evaluate the following query:
SQL> SELECT promo_name q’{’s start date was }’ promo_begin_date
AS “Promotion Launches”
FROM promotions;
What would be the outcome of the above query?
A. It produces an error because flower braces have been used.
B. It produces an error because the data types are not matching.
C. It executes successfully and introduces an ’s at the end of each promo_name in the output.
D. It executes successfully and displays the literal ” {’s start date was } ” for each row in the output.
Answer: C
17. View the E xhibit and examine the data in the EMPLOYEES table.
You want to generate a report showing the total compensation paid to each employee to date.
You issue the following query:
SQL>SELECT ename ‘ joined on ‘ hiredate
‘, the total compensation paid is ‘
TO_CHAR(ROUND(ROUND(SYSDATE-hiredate)/365) * sal + comm)
“COMPENSATION UNTIL DATE”
FROM employees;
What is the outcome?
A. It generates an error because the alias is not valid.
B. It executes successfully and gives the correct output.
C. It executes successfully but does not give the correct output.
D. It generates an error because the usage of the ROUND function in the expression is not valid.
E. It generates an error because the concatenation operator can be used to combine only two items.
Answer: C
18. Examine the structure of the PROMOTIONS table:
name Null Type
PROMO_ID NOT NULL NUMBER(6)
PROMO_NAME NOT NULL VARCHAR2(30)
PROMO_CATEGORY NOT NULL VARCHAR2(30)
PROMO_COST NOT NULL NUMBER(10,2)
The management wants to see a report of unique promotion costs in each promotion category.
Which query would achieve the required result?
A. SELECT DISTINCT promo_cost, promo_category FROM promotions;
B. SELECT promo_category, DISTINCT promo_cost FROM promotions;
C. SELECT DISTINCT promo_cost, DISTINCT promo_category FROM promotions;
D. SELECT DISTINCT promo_category, promo_cost FROM promotions ORDER BY 1;
Answer: D
19. Evaluate the following query:
SELECT INTERVAL ‘300′ MONTH,
INTERVAL ‘54-2′ YEAR TO MONTH,
INTERVAL ‘11:12:10.1234567′ HOUR TO SECOND
FROM dual;
What is the correct output of the above query?
A. +25-00 , +54-02, +00 11:12:10.123457
B. +00-300, +54-02, +00 11:12:10.123457
C. +25-00 , +00-650, +00 11:12:10.123457
D. +00-300 , +00-650, +00 11:12:10.123457
Answer: A
20.Which three statements are true regarding the data types in Oracle Database 10g/11g? (Choose three.)
A. Only one LONG column can be used per table.
B. A TIMESTAMP data type column stores only time values with fractional seconds.
C. The BLOB data type column is used to store binary data in an operating system file.
D. The minimum column width that can be specified for a VARCHAR2 data type column is one.
E. The value for a CHAR data type column is blank-padded to the maximum defined column width.
Answer: ADE
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xam Number: 1Z0_050
Associated Certifications: Oracle Database 11g DBA OCP
OPN Certified Specialist
Duration: 105 minutes
Number of Questions:
79
Passing Score: 61%
1. You are managing the APPPROD database as a DBA. You plan to duplicate this database in the same
system with the name DUPDB.
You issued the following RMAN commands to create a duplicate database:
Which three are the prerequisites for the successful execution of the above command? (Choose three.)
A.The source database should be open.
B.The target database should be in ARCHIVELOG mode if it is open.
C.RMAN should be connected to both the instances as SYSDBA.
D.The target database backups should be copied to the source database backup directories.
E.The password file must exist for the source database and have the same SYS user password as the
target.
Answer: BCE
2. Which two are the prerequisites to enable Flashback Data Archive? (Choose two.)
A.Undo retention guarantee must be enabled.
B.Database must be running in archivelog mode.
C.Automatic undo management must be enabled.
D.The tablespace on which the Flashback Data Archive is created must be managed with Automatic
Segment Space Management (ASSM).
Answer: CD
3. Identify two situations in which you can use Data Recovery Advisor for recovery. (Choose two.)
A.The database files are corrupted when the database is open.
B.The archived log files are missing for which backup is not available.
C.The user has dropped an important table that needs to be recovered.
D.You are not able to start up the database instance because the required database files are missing.
Answer: AD
4. You opened the encryption wallet and then issued the following command:
Then you closed the wallet. Later, you issued the following command to create the EMPLOYEES table in
the SECURESPACE tablespace and you use the NO SALT option for the EMPID column.
What is the outcome?
A.It creates the table and encrypts the data in it.
B.It generates an error because the wallet is closed.
C.It creates the table but does not encrypt the data in it.
D.It generates an error because the NO SALT option cannot be used with the ENCRYPT option.
Answer: B
5. Which dependent object will get invalidated even if it is not affected by the table redefinition?
A.views
B.triggers
C.packages
D.synonyms
Answer: B
6. You are managing an Oracle 11g database with ASM storage, for which the COMPATIBLE initialization
parameter is set to 11.1.0. In the ASM instance, the COMPATIBLE.RDBMS attribute for the disk group is set
to 10.2 and the COMPATIBLE.ASM attribute is set to 11.1.
Which two statements are true in this scenario for the features enabled for ASM? (Choose two.)
A.The ASM-preferred mirror read feature is enabled.
B.The ASM supports variable sizes for extents of 1, 8, and 64 allocation units.
C.The ASM disk is dropped immediately from a disk group when it becomes unavailable.
D.The RDBMS always reads the primary copy of a mirrored extent of the ASM disk group.
Answer: AB
7. Examine the following PL/SQL block:
Which statement describes the effect of the execution of the above PL/SQL block?
A.The plan baselines are verified with the SQL profiles.
B.All fixed plan baselines are converted into nonfixed plan baselines.
C.All the nonaccepted SQL profiles are accepted into the plan baseline.
D.The nonaccepted plans in the SQL Management Base are verified with the existing plan baselines.
Answer: D
8. Which is the source used by Automatic SQL Tuning that runs as part of the AUTOTASK framework?
A.SQL statements that are part of the AWR baseline only
B.SQL statements based on the AWR top SQL identification
C.SQL statements that are part of the available SQL Tuning Set (STS) only
D.SQL statements that are available in the cursor cache and executed by a user other than SYS
Answer: B
9. Which two statements are true with respect to the maintenance window? (Choose two.)
A.A DBA can enable or disable an individual task in all maintenance windows.
B.A DBA cannot change the duration of the maintenance window after it is created.
C.In case of a long maintenance window, all Automated Maintenance Tasks are restarted every four hours.
D.A DBA can control the percentage of the resource allocated to the Automated Maintenance Tasks in each
window.
Answer: AD
10. What are the recommendations for Oracle Database 11g installation to make it Optimal Flexible
Architecture (OFA)-compliant? (Choose all that apply.)
A.ORACLE_BASE should be set explicitly.
B.An Oracle base should have only one Oracle home created in it.
C.Flash recovery area and data file location should be on separate disks.
D.Flash recovery area and data file location should be created under Oracle base in a non-Automatic
Storage Management (ASM) setup.
Answer: ACD
11. During the installation of Oracle Database 11g, you do not set ORACLE_BASE explicitly. You selected
the option to create a database as part of the installation. How would this environment variable setting affect
the installation?
A.The installation terminates with an error.
B.The installation proceeds with the default value without warnings and errors.
C.The installation proceeds with the default value but it would not be an OFA-compliant database.
D.The installation proceeds with the default value but a message would be generated in the alert log file.
Answer: D
12. Which two statements are true regarding the starting of the database instance using the following
command? (Choose two.)
SQL>STARTUP UPGRADE
A.It enables all system triggers.
B.It allows only SYSDBA connections.
C.It ensures that all job queues remain active during the upgrade process.
D.It sets system initialization parameters to specific values that are required to enable database upgrade
scripts to be run.
Answer: BD
13. Your organization decided to upgrade the existing Oracle 10g database to Oracle 11g database in a
multiprocessor environment. At the end of the upgrade, you observe that the DBA executes the following
script:
SQL> @utlrp.sql
What is the significance of executing this script?
A.It performs parallel recompilation of only the stored PL/SQL code.
B.It performs sequential recompilation of only the stored PL/SQL code.
C.It performs parallel recompilation of any stored PL/SQL as well as Java code.
D.It performs sequential recompilation of any stored PL/SQL as well as Java code.
Answer: C
14. You installed Oracle Database 11g and are performing a manual upgrade of the Oracle9i database. As
a part of the upgrade process, you execute the following script:
SQL>@utlu111i.sql
Which statement about the execution of this script is true?
A.It must be executed from the Oracle Database 11g environment.
B.It must be executed only after the SYSAUX tablespace has been created.
C.It must be executed from the environment of the database that is being upgraded.
D.It must be executed only after AUTOEXTEND is set to ON for all existing tablespaces.
E.It must be executed from both the Oracle Database 11g and Oracle Database 9i environments.
Answer: C
15. Which two statements about Oracle Direct Network File System (NFS) are true? (Choose two.)
A.It bypasses the OS file system cache.
B.A separate NFS interface is required for use across Linux, UNIX, and Windows platforms.
C.It uses the operating system kernel NFS layer for user tasks and network communication modules.
D.File systems need not be mounted by the kernel NFS system when being served through Direct NFS.
E.Oracle Disk Manager can manage NFS on its own, without using the operating system kernel NFS driver.
Answer: AE
16. You decided to use Direct NFS configuration in a non-RAC Oracle installation and created the oranfstab
file in /etc.
Which two statements are true regarding this oranfstab file? (Choose two.)
A.Its entries are specific to a single database.
B.It contains file systems that have been mounted by Direct NFS.
C.It is globally available to all Oracle 11g databases on the machine.
D.It contains file systems that have been mounted by the kernel NFS system.
Answer: CD
17. Following is the list of locations in random order where oranfstab can be placed.
What is the sequence in which Direct NFS will search the locations?
A.1, 2, 3
B.3, 2, 1
C.2, 3, 1
D.1, 3, 2
Answer: C
18. Which steps are mandatory to enable Direct NFS?
A.2 and 3
B.1 and 3
C.1 and 2
D.1, 2 and 3
Answer: B
19. Which two statements are true regarding hot patching? (Choose two.)
A.It requires relinking of the Oracle binary.
B.It does not require database instance shutdown.
C.It can detect conflicts between two online patches.
D.It is available for installing all patches on all platforms.
E.It works only in a single database instance environment.
Answer: BC
20. In which two aspects does hot patching differ from conventional patching? (Choose two.)
A.It consumes more memory compared with conventional patching.
B.It can be installed and uninstalled via OPatch unlike conventional patching.
C.It takes more time to install or uninstall compared with conventional patching.
D.It does not require down time to apply or remove unlike conventional patching.
E.It is not persistent across instance startup and shutdown unlike conventional patching.
Answer: AD
You plan to use SQL Performance Analyzer to analyze the SQL workload.
You created a SQL Tuning Set as a part of the workload capturing. What information is captured as part
of this process? (Choose all that apply.)
A. the SQL text
B. the execution plan
C. the execution context
D. the execution frequency
E. the system change number (SCN)
correct is A, B, C, D
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Exam Number: 1Z0-235
Associated Certifications: Oracle 11i Applications DBA
Exam Price: US$195
Duration: 120 minutes
Number of Questions: 68
Passing Score: 70%
Recommended Training and Preparation
Oracle9i Database Administration Fundamentals I
OR
Oracle9iOracle9i DBA Fundamentals I – LWC
AND
Oracle9i Database Administration Fundamentals II
OR
Oracle9iOracle9i DBA Fundamentals II – LWC
1. You receive the following error while connecting to an Oracle9i database instance:
ORA-12523 TNS:listener could not find instance appropriate for the client connection
Which action would be appropriate in the context of investigating the cause of error?
A. checking the listener.ora file to verify that the protocol specified in ADDRESS is supported by the
database server
B. checking the sqlnet.ora file to verify that the NAMES.DIRECTORY_PATH=
(TNSNAMES,HOSTNAME)parameter is set
C. executing the lsnrctl services command to verify that the instances are registered with the listener, and
have the READY status.
D. checking the tnsnames.ora file to verify that the net service name specified in your connect string is
mapped to a connect descriptor
Answer: C
2. You are using rollback segments in your database. To ease transaction management, you want to
implement automatic undo management by using the following steps:
1. creating an undo tablespace
2. setting the UNDO_MANAGEMENT parameter to AUTO in the parameter file
3. changing the tablespace that has the rollback segments to an undo tablespace by using the ALTER
TABLESPACE command
4. setting the UNDO_TABLESPACE parameter to the tablespace that has the rollback segments
5. dropping the rollback segments and create undo segments in the same tablespace that has the rollback
segments
Which option would you use?
A. 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 3 and 5 only
E. 2 and 5 only
Answer: B
3. You specified extent management as local for a tablespace. How will this affect space management in
the tablespace?
A. Bitmap will be used to record free and allocated extents.
B. Free extents will be managed by the data dictionary tables.
C. The tablespace can have extents containing blocks of different sizes.
D. The tablespace will be system managed and the users cannot specify the extent size.
Answer: A
4. Which statement regarding the KEEP buffer pool is true assuming that it is sized correctly?
A. The buffer pool can be used for data blocks of standard size only.
B. The buffer pool can be used for data blocks of both standard and nonstandard sizes.
C. The buffer pool eliminates data blocks from memory when they are no longer needed.
D. The buffer pool holds data blocks from schema objects that are not assigned to any buffer pool.
Answer: A
5. Which two statements are true regarding object privileges? (Choose two.)
A. The privileges cannot be granted to a user in the form of a role.
B. The object owner can grant the privileges to any other user in the database.
C. Any user that has the GRANT ANY OBJECT PRIVILEGE can grant the privileges on behalf of the object
owner.
D. The grantee of the privileges withWITH GRANT OPTION can revoke the same privileges from any other
user irrespective of its grantor.
Answer: BC
6. Which two statements are true regarding the temporary tablespace? (Choose two.)
A. Used for sort operations
B. Can contain permanent objects
C. Cannot be shared by multiple users
D. Cannot be created with nonstandard block size specification
Answer: AD
7. You want to reuse all the existing data files, control files, and redo log files to re-create your test database.
You execute the following command to create the database:
CREATE DATABASE testdb
DATAFILE
‘/u01/oradata/testdb/system01.dbf’
SIZE 100M REUSE
LOGFILE
GROUP 1 (’/u01/oradata/testdb/log1a.rdo’,
‘/u02/oradata/testdb/log1b.rdo’)
SIZE 50K REUSE,
GROUP 2 (’/u01/oradata/testdb/log2a.rdo’,
‘/u02/oradata/testdb/log2b.rdo’)
SIZE 50K REUSE
MAXLOGFILES 5
MAXLOGHISTORY 100
MAXDATAFILES 10;
The command fails to create the database successfully. What could be the reason?
A. You have set MAXLOGFILES to a very low value.
B. You cannot reuse the online redo log files.
C. You have omitted the CONTROLFILE REUSE clause.
D. You cannot reuse the data file belonging to the SYSTEM tablespace.
Answer: C
8. Which three statements are correct regarding the listener process? (Choose three.)
A. A listener can be configured to listen for multiple protocols.
B. Multiple listeners cannot listen on behalf of a single database.
C. The name of the listener should be unique per listener.ora file.
D. A listener can listen for a single database only and not multiple databases.
E. The listener transfers the connection request to a dispatcher in a Shared Server configuration.
F. The listener transfers the connection request to the Connection Manager in a Dedicated Server
configuration.
Answer: ACE
9. View the Exhibit.
Examine the value set for the NAMES.DIRECTORY_PATH parameter in the sqlnet.ora file. You are working
in a TCP/IP network environment. What will happen when you try to connect to the database from a
remote client?
A. The local naming method will be used first to resolve a connect identifier.
B. It will result in an error because two values cannot be specified for the NAMES.DIRECTORY_PATH
parameter.
C. If the local naming method is unable to resolve the connect identifier, then Oracle Names server will be
used to resolve the connect identifier.
D. If the host naming method is unable to resolve the connect identifier, then the net service name stored in
a centralized LDAP-compliant directory server is used to resolve the connect identifier.
Answer: A
10. You are working in a dedicated server environment. You require the PMON process to register with a
local listener, lsnr1, which does not use TCP/IP, port 1521. The protocol address of lsnr1 is available in the
listener.ora file. What would you do?
A. configure the LOCAL_LISTENER parameter in the initialization parameter file
B. configure the SID_LIST_LSNR1 parameter in the listener.ora file
C. execute the lsnrctl set command with the appropriate parameter to set the correct instance names
D. no explicit action required because the protocol address of the listener is available in the listener.ora file
Answer: A
11. You executed the following command to grant the CONNECT role to the USER01 user:
SQL> GRANT connect to USER01
WITH ADMIN OPTION;
Which statement is true?
A. The user can grant the role to any database user but cannot revoke it.
B. The user can grant or revoke the role to or from any database user.
C. The user can revoke the role from any database user but cannot grant it.
D. The statement fails because the CONNECT role cannot be granted with WITH ADMIN OPTION.
E. The user can grant or revoke the role to or from any database user except the SYS and SYSTEM
users.
Answer: B
12. Which Oracle data type should you use to store data in a database that uses multiple languages to
store data?
A. LONG
B. CHAR
C. VARCHAR
D. VARCHAR2
E. NVARCHAR2
Answer: E
13. You executed the following command to create an index on CUSTOMER_ID and ITEMS_ID columns in
the ORDERS table:
SQL> CREATE INDEX orders_prim_indx
ON orders (customer_id, items_id);
In which two conditions would a query use this index? (Choose two.)
A. when both the columns are used in the WHERE clause of the query
B. when both the columns are used in the SELECT clause of the query
C. when the CUSTOMER_ID column is used in the WHERE clause of the query
D. when the ITEMS_ID column is used with a single row function in the WHERE clause of the query
Answer: AC
14. When is the control file opened?
A. after the data files are opened
B. after the parameter file is opened
C. after the redo log files are opened
D. after the parameter file, data files, and redo log files are opened
E. before the parameter file, data files, and redo log files are opened
Answer: B
15. Querying which two dynamic performance views would retrieve information from the control file?
(Choose two.)
A. V$SGA
B. V$TEMPFILE
C. V$INSTANCE
D. V$DATABASE
E. V$PARAMETER
Answer: BD
16. You work for a company having two databases, one located in India and another in New York. You want
to use Enterprise Manager to administer, diagnose, and tune these two databases. Which component
would you configure to run on each of the nodes where database servers run to achieve this task?
A. Intelligent Agent
B. INTYPE file assistant
C. Management Repository
D. Oracle Management Server
Answer: A
17. Which three functions are provided by undo segments? (Choose three.)
A. to avoid dead locks
B. to maintain read consistency
C. to roll back an erroneous transaction
D. to record the old values of a transaction
E. to record both old and new values of a transaction
Answer: BCD
18. Which view would you query to identify the space utilization settings for tables owned by the APPS
user?
A. DBA_OBJECTS
B. DBA_EXTENTS
C. DBA_SEGMENTS
D. DBA_OBJECT_TABLES
Answer: C
19. Consider the following facts about your database:
-The database operates in NOARCHIVELOG mode.
-The database has three redo log groups.
-All the groups have one member each.
-Redo log group 3 is the CURRENT group.
You executed the following command:
SQL> ALTER DATABASE DROP LOGFILE MEMBER
2 ‘D:\ORACLE\ORADATA\MYDB\REDO03.LOG’;
The command fails to drop the member. What is the reason displayed for the failure of the command?
A. You cannot drop the last member in a group.
B. You cannot drop a member until checkpoint completes.
C. You cannot drop a member when the database is open.
D. You cannot drop a member from a group as the database is in NOARCHIVELOG mode.
Answer: A
20. A session in the database should not have access to the uncommitted changes made by other sessions.
How does the Oracle server ensure this?
A. by using the redo log buffer
B. by using the undo segment
C. by using the temporary tables
D. by using the online redo log files
E. by using the temporary segment
Answer: B
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Exam Number: 1Z0-233
Associated Certifications: Oracle 11i Applications Database Administrator.
Exam Price: US$195
Duration: 90 minutes
Number of Questions: 61
Passing Score: 65%
1. The patch 384610 was applied to the Test environment successfully. To schedule the patch to be applied
to the Production environment, the Applications DBA should inform the users of the unavailability of the
Production environment. Which report can the Applications DBA look at to determine the estimated duration
of the task, assuming the hardware, server load and applications running on the servers are unchanged?
A. Timing report
B. Bug Fixes report
C. Files Copied report
D. Action Details report
E. Patch Details report
F. Action Summary report
Answer: A
2. A worker process has been running for a long time, and appears to be hanging. Which are the four
correct actions that an Oracle Applications 11i database administrator (DBA) would take to resolve this
issue? (Choose four.)
A. Start and use the AD Controller utility.
B. Get that worker process ID.
C. Restart the failed job by using AD Controller.
D. Check for an entry for this process in the V$SESSION table.
E. Check the worker log file in $AD_TOP/admin/
Answer: ABCD
3. In the Oracle Applications 11i file system, where do you find the server process scripts of the database
tier?
A.
B.
C.
D. <8.0.6 ORACLE HOME>/appsutil/scripts
Answer: B
4. The Oracle Applications 11i process must be started on the applications tier. Choose one script that must
be run to perform the task.
A. adtcfctl.sh
B. adstrtal.sh
C. adfmsctl.sh
D. adapcctl.sh
E. adfmcctl.sh
Answer: B
5. What are the three benefits of the Oracle Applications tablespace model? (Choose three.)
A. takes advantage of manual segment management
B. simplifies maintenance and recovery by using fewer tablespaces
C. utilizes locally managed tablespaces, and enables more control over unused space
D. makes best use of the restricted number of raw devices available in Real Application Clusters (RAC) and
other environments
E. decreases block-packing compared to the older model, increasing the overall number of buffer gets
Answer: BCD
6. What is true about Rapid Install?
A. Rapid Install can be used to install a new database tier.
B. Rapid Install can be used only for a new installation of Oracle Applications.
C. Rapid Install can be used to install only the new technology-stack components.
D. For an upgrade, Rapid Install installs Oracle 9i RDBMS Oracle home without a database.
E. Rapid Install can be used to set up the file system and configure server processes for an upgraded
system.
F. Along with creating Oracle homes, Rapid Install generates new configuration files by using Autoconfig.
Answer: B
7. As a part of cloning process, the Applications DBA needs to copy the Database Tier File system to the
target system. Which step is NOT a part of this cloning phase?
A. Log on to the source system application tier nodes as the oracle user.
B. Perform a normal shutdown of the source system database.
C. Copy the database files from the source to the target system.
D. Copy the source <806 ORACLE_HOME> and
system.
Answer: D
8. AD Administration contains a utility named Maintain Snapshot Information. Which statements correctly
describe the functionality of this utility? (Choose all that apply.)
A. You can create a copy of an existing snapshot.
B. You can delete the current view snapshot.
C. You can create a list of the current view and named snapshots stored in your system.
D. You can export an existing snapshot to a file for storage or to another system.
E. You can update the current view snapshot with any changes to the snapshot since the last update.
Answer: ACDE
9. There was an error while applying a patch. The AutoPatch error message indicates that the
FND_INSTALL_PROCESSES table already exists. AutoPatch asks if you want to drop the table.Which two
steps need to be performed before dropping the table? (Choose two.)
A. Shut down the concurrent managers process.
B. The users need to log out of Oracle Applications.
C. Determine if there are errors in the Patch log files.
D. Determine if other users are running the AD Merge program.
E. Check whether a previous patch session did not run to completion.
F. Determine if AutoPatch, or any other AD Utility is running in another session.
G. The password for the APPS user is invalid. Confirm the password of the APPS user.
Answer: EF
10. What happens if you run the
script?
A. It runs AutoConfig in test mode.
B. It rolls back the previous AutoConfig session.
C. It creates the cfgcheck.html configuration report.
D. It updates configuration and profiles on the database tier.
E. It updates configuration and profiles on the applications tier and database tables.
Answer: E
11. Which three statements are true about AutoConfig? (Choose three.)
A. AutoConfig moves files and directories as needed.
B. AutoConfig updates DNS (domain name server) entries and checks port numbers.
C. AutoConfig removes the need to make manual updates to configuration files.
D. The AutoConfig script uses template files to determine the basic settings that are needed.
E. The AutoConfig script uses information from the context file to generate all applications configuration
files and update database profiles.
Answer: CDE
12. Which two worker status flows are possible in the Oracle Applications 11i E-Business Suite
environment? (Choose two.)
A. Waiting > Running > Completed
B. Waiting > Assigned > Running > Completed
C. Waiting > Running > Failed > Restarted > Completed
D. Assigned > Running > Failed > Restarted > Completed
E. Waiting > Assigned > Running > Failed > Fixed, Restart > Restarted > Completed
Answer: BE
13. As a project manager, you need to understand the concepts of the Rapid Clone utility. The Applications
DBA gave you some information about Rapid Clone. Which three pieces of information are correct?
(Choose three.)
A. The port numbers of the cloned system should be different from the source system if both are on the
same server. Both the target and source system would be online for the users at the same time.
B. Rapid Clone cannot clone the Test system, which is a clone of the Production system.
C. Rapid Clone enables adding or removing database mount points or redistributing database files among
mount points in the target system.
D. Rapid Clone preserves the patch history of the complete Application Stack.
Answer: ACD
14. You needed to apply patches to the production environment. Applying the patches on the Test
environment was successful. When you applied the patches to the Production environment, the patches
finished without any errors during the process. However, patch changes were not applied and the patch
histories were not changed. What could be the cause of this situation?
A. The Production database is down.
B. The AutoPatch version is incorrect.
C. The table for the patch history is full.
D. The patch was applied in pre-Install mode.
E. The patch was applied in Test mode.
F. The patch was applied in Normal mode.
Answer: E
15.What is true about editing and saving the
Manager (OAM) Web page?
A. AutoConfig automatically starts and picks up the changes and propagates them when the context file
gets saved on the OAM Web page.
B. When you make changes to the context file on the OAM Web page and save the file, the changes are
stored in the OAM database and the context file gets updated.
C. After changes made to the context file are saved on the OAM Web page, you have to log out and log in
back to OAM to apply and propagate the changes.
D. The context file is edited and saved to the file system only. AutoConfig picks up the changes whenever it
next runs after the update.
Answer: B
16.Which four statements correctly describe the use and functionality of the APPS schema? (Choose four.)
A. Organizations with Multiple Reporting Currencies (MRC) have MRC views in the APPS schema.
B. Only after the user connects to the APPS schema is the user allowed to select a responsibility.
C. The multi-Org architecture secures information within an operating unit by using views within the APPS
schema.
D. All table names that contain multi-Org data end with _ALL, and the tables are stored in the APPS
schema.
E. During sign-on, Oracle Applications connects the user to the APPS schema only after the user name and
password are verified.
Answer: ABCE
17. When using Java Server Pages, the HTML-Based Applications module uses the following access path.
Identify the process that does not belong.
A.The user clicks the hyperlink of a function from a browser.
B.The browser makes a URL request to the Web listener.
C.The Web listener contacts the Servlet engine (JServ) where it runs a JavaServer Pages (JSP) page.
D.The JSP page obtains the content from the Applications tables and uses information from the metadata
dictionary to construct the HTML page.
E.The UIX (HTML UI Generator) interprets the page definition, creates the corresponding HTML in
accordance with user interface (UI) standards, and sends the page to the browser.
F.The resulting HTML page is passed back to the browser via the Web server.
A. Process A
B. Process B
C. Process C
D. Process D
E. Process E
F. Process F
Answer: E
18. What are the four benefits of using shared APPL_TOP? (Choose four.)
A. Disk space requirements are greatly reduced.
B. Administrative tasks need to be carried out once only, on any node.
C. There is an increased performance for larger workloads and growing user populations.
D. It provides extensible system architecture; machines can easily be added to an existing system.
E. All active instances can concurrently execute transactions against a shared database.
F. By enabling the use of distributed AD, it improves the efficiency of patch application, thereby reducing the
down time.
Answer: ABDF
19. What is contained in the FND_APPLICATION_TL table found in the Oracle Applications 11i database?
A. table list of all the Oracle Application Object Library (AOL) objects
B. transaction-load statistics of Application Object Library usage
C. trigger logic for all the Application Object Library (AOL) related tables
D. language translated information about all the applications registered with Application Object Library
Answer: D
20. Users are successfully connected to Oracle Applications, and they can use Oracle Forms. But they
cannot use Discoverer Viewer. The solution is to start Discoverer processes.Which script should be used to
start the Discoverer processes?
A. jtffmctl.sh
B. addisctl.sh
C. adalnctl.sh
D. adcmctl.sh
E. adrepctl.sh
F. adapcctl.sh
G. adaprstctl.sh
Answer: B
