Free Testking 000-M36 Maximo Mastery Test v1 Braindump
Free Testking 000-M36 Maximo Mastery Test v1 Braindump, 000-M36 Exam IBM Maximo Asset Management Technical Sales Mastery Test v1.
1. A company manages many similar assets by using regularly scheduled inspections and maintenance
activities. Occasionally, the schedules for these activities must be adjusted. The maintenance manager
insists these changes are time consuming and often result in missed maintenance tasks.
What should be recommended to improve the program schedule updates for multiple similar assets?
A. Use the Master PM application.
B. Use the Assignment Manager application.
C. Use the group update Select Action of the Work Order Tracking application.
D. Use the group update Select Action of the Preventive Maintenance application.
Answer: A
2. Enterprise Asset Management packages offer a wide range of capabilities. Which three areas of
capability are covered by IBM Maximo Asset Management solutions? (Choose three)
A. work orders
B. human resources
C. inventory control
D. preventive maintenance
E. facilities schedule management
F. customer relationship management
Answer: ACD
3. Which three benefits do Enterprise Asset Management solutions provide? (Choose three.)
A. Reduce asset life.
B. Increase productivity.
C. Increase risk and costs.
D. Improve return on assets.
E. Reduce total cost of ownership.
F. Minimize collection on warranty claims.
Answer: BDE
Free Testking IBM 000-M37 Certification Exam Braindump
Free Testking IBM 000-M37 Certification Exam Braindump, 000-M37 Exam IBM WebSphere Portal Technical Sales Mastery v2.
1. Which of the following features enables administrators to create multiple distinct portals, but share the
resources (themes, portlets, etc) of the existing portal installation?
A. Virtual Portal
B. Composite Application
C. Portal Cluster
D. Portal Scripting
Answer: A
2. What portal feature allows for self-service creation of Virtual Portals?
A. Site Creator
B. Site Wizard
C. Virtual Portal Manager
D. Site Construction Portlet
Answer: B
3. The Web 2.0 portal theme allows for client side aggregation (CSA). Which of the following is NOT a
benefit of CSA?
A. Faster rendering and performance
B. Desktop like user experience
C. Easier portal theme deployment
D. Reduce server load
Answer: C
4. A customer requirement is to allow the creation of business rules to profile users and control the content
that is displayed in specific areas of a portal page. What feature can be used to meet this requirement?
A. Page Customizer
B. Personalization Engine
C. Rules Builder
D. Content Customizer
Answer: B
5. A customer requirement is to provide a way for business users to be able to re-use existing components
to create a portal application that services the needs for their particular group. What feature can be used to
meet this requirement?
A. Composite Applications
B. Rapid Application Developer
C. Virtual Portals
D. Site Builder
Answer: A
Free Testking 000-443 db2 content manager v8.3 Exam Braindump
Free Testking 000-443 db2 content manager v8.3 Exam Braindump, 000-443 Exams IBM db2 content manager v8.3. Course duration: 5.0 days
Course number: IM251
Learn custom programming techniques and build a stand-alone Web application using the IBM Content Manager (CM) for Multiplatforms Version 8 (V8) Application Programming Interfaces (API). Understand the advanced CM V8 document model and features. Also, explore IBM DB2 Information Integrator for Content V8 APIs for Federated search and retrieve. Work with non-visual and visual JavaBeans, and the Controller Servlet and JavaServer Page (JSP) Tag Library.
See Remarks for Special Note.
Application programmers, services specialists, system analysts, and consultants, who customize CM V8 and write applications for CM and Information Integrator for Content Federated Search.
Course title: IBM CM 8.4.1 System Administration 8.4
Course duration: 4 days
Course number: IM520
Abstract: This course is for those whose job includes responsibility for maintaining, monitoring, and configuring an operational Content Manager system. Maintenance tasks include administering users and groups, and maintaining all components of the various business processes or applications that run on the system. Monitoring tasks include ensuring that proper database sizing and backup parameters are met. Work with a fully functioning IBM Content Manager system to practice the skills required to administer, maintain, and troubleshoot an IBM Content Manager system.
Below we list the primary objectives of the DB2 Content Manager exam. These objectives are listed here to assist you in your preparation for the exam, which you must pass to receive the IBM Certified Solution Designer — DB2 Content Manager V8.3 certification.
Section 1 – High Level Design and Requirements Gathering (25%)
Design High Level Data Model
Define and Determine Retention Policies
Identify Volume and Size of Stored Objects
Identify Data Capture Options
Design the System
Number of Users Supported
Number of Servers
Configuration Topology
System Managed Storage
Security
LDAP
Administrative Domains
International Language Support
Define Policies for Disaster Recovery
Backup and Restore
Define Workflow Process – Worklists and Nodes
Section 2 – Installation and Configuration (13%)
Identify Installation Prerequistites
Hardware, Software
Perform Install and Validate Prerequisites
Configure Base Installation Based on Customer Requirements
DB2, WAS, CM
Install and Configure Clients: 1) eClient, Windows Client, 2) Validate Client Installation, 3) Identify and Install Co-Reqs (LDAP, TSM, NSE)
Section 3 – Troubleshooting (10%)
Run Traces to Diagnose Problem
Review Error Messages to Determine Problems
Application Logs / System Log
DB2 / Oracle Logs
Operating System Logs / Event Logs
Network Logs
WebSphere Tracing / Logs
HTTP Server Logs
Verify System Configuration and Associated Files
INI & CFG Files
Section 4 – System Administration (17%)
Define Attributes, Item Types, Child Components, Reference, Links
Define and Configure Administrative Domains
Define Users and User Groups
Set Access Listing Controls / Privileges
Define LDAP Configurations
Define Document Routing Process
Manage Toke Duration and Token Generation
Section 5 – System Managed Storage (8%)
Define Storage Hierarchies and Devices
Tape, CD Rom, Optical
Define Archival Rules / Schedules
Understand TSM to CM Integration
Define Resource Manager Replication
Section 6 – Maintenance and Performance Tuning (8%)
Evaluate Performance Against Criteria
Timing (Batch Loads / Retrieves, Image Loads, User Response, Maximum Loads)
System Resources (File, Size, CPU Usage, Memory Usage, DASD Usage, Network Traffic)
Identify Server Performance Optimization Techniques
Runstats, Rebind, Proper Indexing
Section 7 – Content Manager Clients (7%)
Select Approprate Client(s) Based on Usage, Environments, Integration Requirements
Perform Client Function
Create, Retrieve, Update, Delete
Configure Client Options
eClient Properties, Property Files, Settings, etc.
Section 8 – Solution Integration (7%)
Identify Integration Options
Framework, Clients, CM Beans, Java API, C++ API, Available User Exits
Prototype(s) of Integration Options
Section 9 – Core Product Information (6%)
Identify Appropriate Product to Resolve Specific Customer Problems
CM, OD, Document Manger, Records Manager, Information Integrator for Content, CommonStore, Business Controls and Reporting
Identify Key Product Functions and Features.
1. During installation, which of the following options must be configured to connect to an LDAP server and retrieve
user names and groups into Content Manager?
A. Base DN and group names
B. Server name and Base DN
C. Server name and group attributes
D. Base DN and minimum number of records to retrieve
Answer: B
2. Which item type classification does NOT allow text searching on the content of a text document?
A. Item
B. Document
C. Resource
D. Document Part
Answer: A
3. An Item Type must contain which of the following?
A. A root component
B. A resource component
C. At least one child component
D. An item constructor component
Answer: A
4. When a connection to a pre-existing Content Manager database server is being defined during an installation of a
new administrative client, what will happen if the schema name is omitted or typed incorrectly?
A. The administrative client will fail to start.
B. The installation process will create a default schema.
C. The System Administration client list of servers will appear empty.
D. During startup the administrative client will ask the user to define a schema since it was missing during
installation.
Answer: C
5. A developer needs to integrate enterprise content with two line-of-business applications. The first application
contains DB2 relational data and the second one is an archive of images residing on a Domino.DOC system. Which
of the following approaches will work best if the goal is to minimize both the development time and the amount of code
written and maintained by the client?
A. Develop Java applications using the base libraries of DB2 and Domino.DOC.
B. Develop the application using the native API’s available with DB2 and Domino.DOC.
C. Develop the application using the Federated connector within the WebSphere Information Integrator for Content
Edition.
D. Develop the application using the Relational data connector and the Domino.doc enabler connector within the
WebSphere Information Integrator for Content Edition.
Answer: C
6. Additional privileges were added to a privilege set associated with a user group, which has been assigned to an
ACL. However, a user in this user group does not see these privileges. Which of the following is a possible reason for
this outcome?
A. The user belongs to a subdomain.
B. The privilege was added to a different privilege set.
C. The user is not a Content Manager system administrator.
D. An ACL cannot grant more access than a user has in the privilege set associated with their user ID.
Answer: D
7. Which TWO of the following are valid delete rules that may be applied to a child component definition?
A. Cascade
B. Restrict
C. SetToNull
D. No Action
E. SetDefault
Answer: AB
8. A collection point provides which of the following functions?
A. Defines the data storage volumes for document routing folders and folder items.
B. Waits for external documents to collect in a folder. It sends documents to another work node after administrator
approval.
C. Waits for external documents to collect in a folder. The types of documents collected are specifically determined
by the business task. The collected documents are automatically sent to the next defined work node.
D. Waits for external documents to collect in a folder. It sends documents to another work node after a folder has
collected the required number of documents or sets a notification flag if the time allotted to wait for the required
documents has expired.
Answer: D
9. In a system that uses DB2 Information Integrator for Content and Workflow, how can a user be deleted from
Workflow that has already been deleted in DB2 Information Integrator for Content?
A. Run the EIPUser2WF.bat to delete the users from Workflow.
B. Run the fmcibie utility to delete users and user groups from Workflow.
C. Add the deleted persons to the DeletePersons.fdl file and restart the Workflow service.
D. These users are always synchronized and therefore will never have to delete users directly from Workflow.
Answer: B
10. The DB2 Content Manager connector API query language is similar to which of the following?
A. SQL
B. XPath
C. XQuery
D. Regular expressions
Answer: B
11. A new user has just been added to the Content Manager system. The administrator wants to assign this userid a
privilege set in an already existing access control list. The userid is not shown in the access control list modification
panel. Which of the following is the most likely reason for this?
A. The access control list is already in use and cannot be modified anymore.
B. The userid has an assigned privilege set which includes the ItemSuperAccess privilege.
C. The password for the new userid is expired immediately, and therefore, this userid cannot be accessed.
D. The Content Manager System Administration client needs to be restarted after a userid is created to refresh the
cache.
Answer: B
12. A Content Manager administrator has found that after importing users defined in LDAP into Content Manager, the
imported users are unable to log in to Content Manager. From the Tools>Logging menu in the System
Administration client, where would one change the tracing level to help diagnose this problem?
A. General
B. System Administration
C. Library Server
D. Resource Manager
Answer: B
13. The migrator process has been set to check for data to migrate at intervals of 15 minutes between 8:30 PM and
4:30 AM. Sometimes the migration process takes about 20 minutes to complete. What happens when the last
migration process commences?
A. The migrator will start logging errors as soon as it hits 4:30 AM.
B. The migrator will stop if it runs past 4:30 AM and resume at 8:30 PM from where it stopped.
C. The migrator will complete the last migration process and will stop until the next cycle begins.
D. The migrator will stop at 4:30 AM and an optional flag can be set to email an administrator of a stalled migration.
Answer: C
14. A solutions integrator has been asked to extract administrative metadata in XML format from DB2 Content
Manager in a custom application. Which of the following approaches is the simplest solution to accomplish this task?
A. Use the DKXMLSysAdminService service class in the XML Java API.
B. Use the XML Schema Mapping tool to export the XML data to a file.
C. Use the DKAdminData class to extract the data inside a C++ program.
D. Write a custom administrative user exit to export the XML data to a file.
Answer: A
15. In a system with administrative domains enabled, which of the following objects can exist in more then one
domain?
A. User IDs
B. Collections
C. Resource Managers
D. Access Control Lists
Answer: D
16. An administrator wants to configure a federated search including a DB2 Content Manager server on an iSeries
platform. Which of the following files will need to be updated?
A. frnolint.tbl
B. cmbicmenv.ini
C. cmbicmsrvs.ini
D. cmbcmenv.properties
Answer: A
17. Which THREE of the following files contain System Administration Client error logging information?
A. dklog.log
B. cmadmin.log
C. cmbadmerr.log
D. IDMSysAdmin.log
E. IDMcmberror.log
F. cmbadminerr.log
Answer: ABC
18. What is the default duration of a security token generated to access a resource manager object?
A. 1 day
B. 2 days
C. 2 hours
D. 30 minutes
Answer: B
19. A developer needs to prototype the integration of DB2 Content Manager with an existing application built on the
Microsoft .NET framework. Which of the following related to the integration options is accurate?
A. The developer will need to rewrite the .NET application in Java.
B. The developer must recompile the .NET application as a Visual C++ 6.0 application.
C. The developer will be able to connect directly to Content Manager from the .NET application.
D. The developer will be able to connect to Content Manager but only through a Java proxy class.
Answer: C
20. Which of the following options allows one to quickly develop an MS .NET application which accesses data stored
in a DB2 Content Manager Server?
A. Portlet
B. Web services
C. User exit on the Client for Windows
D. XML Services provided by the C++ API
Answer: B
1. What is the default duration of a security token generated to access a resource manager object?
A. 1 day
B. 2 days
C. 2 hours
D. 30 minutes
Answer: B
2. A new user has just been added to the Content Manager system. The administrator wants to assign this
userid a privilege set in an already existing access control list. The userid is not shown in the access
control list modification panel. Which of the following is the most likely reason for this?
A. The access control list is already in use and cannot be modified anymore.
B. The userid has an assigned privilege set which includes the ItemSuperAccess privilege.
C. The password for the new userid is expired immediately, and therefore, this userid cannot be accessed.
D. The Content Manager System Administration client needs to be restarted after a userid is created to
refresh the cache.
Answer: B
3. The migrator process has been set to check for data to migrate at intervals of 15 minutes between 8:30
PM and 4:30 AM. Sometimes the migration process takes about 20 minutes to complete. What happens
when the last migration process commences?
A. The migrator will start logging errors as soon as it hits 4:30 AM.
B. The migrator will stop if it runs past 4:30 AM and resume at 8:30 PM from where it stopped.
C. The migrator will complete the last migration process and will stop until the next cycle begins.
D. The migrator will stop at 4:30 AM and an optional flag can be set to email an administrator of a stalled
migration.
Answer: C
4. Which TWO of the following are valid delete rules that may be applied to a child component definition?
A. Cascade
B. Restrict
C. SetToNull
D. No Action
E. SetDefault
Answer: AB
5. Additional privileges were added to a privilege set associated with a user group, which has been
assigned to an ACL. However, a user in this user group does not see these privileges. Which of the
following is a possible reason for this outcome?
A. The user belongs to a subdomain.
B. The privilege was added to a different privilege set.
C. The user is not a Content Manager system administrator.
D. An ACL cannot grant more access than a user has in the privilege set associated with their user ID.
Answer: D
6. In a system with administrative domains enabled, which of the following objects can exist in more then
one domain?
A. User IDs
B. Collections
C. Resource Managers
D. Access Control Lists
Answer: D
7. An Item Type must contain which of the following?
A. A root component
B. A resource component
C. At least one child component
D. An item constructor component
Answer: A
8. During installation, which of the following options must be configured to connect to an LDAP server and
retrieve user names and groups into Content Manager?
A. Base DN and group names
B. Server name and Base DN
C. Server name and group attributes
D. Base DN and minimum number of records to retrieve
Answer: B
9. A collection point provides which of the following functions?
A. Defines the data storage volumes for document routing folders and folder items.
B. Waits for external documents to collect in a folder. It sends documents to another work node after
administrator approval.
C. Waits for external documents to collect in a folder. The types of documents collected are specifically
determined by the business task. The collected documents are automatically sent to the next defined work
node.
D. Waits for external documents to collect in a folder. It sends documents to another work node after a
folder has collected the required number of documents or sets a notification flag if the time allotted to wait
for the required documents has expired.
Answer: D
10. In a system that uses DB2 Information Integrator for Content and Workflow, how can a user be deleted
from Workflow that has already been deleted in DB2 Information Integrator for Content?
A. Run the EIPUser2WF.bat to delete the users from Workflow.
B. Run the fmcibie utility to delete users and user groups from Workflow.
C. Add the deleted persons to the DeletePersons.fdl file and restart the Workflow service.
D. These users are always synchronized and therefore will never have to delete users directly from
Workflow.
Answer: B
11. Which item type classification does NOT allow text searching on the content of a text document?
A. Item
B. Document
C. Resource
D. Document Part
Answer: A
12. A solutions integrator has been asked to extract administrative metadata in XML format from DB2
Content Manager in a custom application. Which of the following approaches is the simplest solution to
accomplish this task?
A. Use the DKXMLSysAdminService service class in the XML Java API.
B. Use the XML Schema Mapping tool to export the XML data to a file.
C. Use the DKAdminData class to extract the data inside a C++ program.
D. Write a custom administrative user exit to export the XML data to a file.
Answer: A
13. A developer needs to integrate enterprise content with two line-of-business applications. The first
application contains DB2 relational data and the second one is an archive of images residing on a
Domino.DOC system. Which of the following approaches will work best if the goal is to minimize both the
development time and the amount of code written and maintained by the client?
A. Develop Java applications using the base libraries of DB2 and Domino.DOC.
B. Develop the application using the native API’s available with DB2 and Domino.DOC.
C. Develop the application using the Federated connector within the WebSphere Information Integrator for
Content Edition.
D. Develop the application using the Relational data connector and the Domino.doc enabler connector
within the WebSphere Information Integrator for Content Edition.
Answer: C
14. The DB2 Content Manager connector API query language is similar to which of the following?
A. SQL
B. XPath
C. XQuery
D. Regular expressions
Answer: B
15. A developer needs to prototype the integration of DB2 Content Manager with an existing application
built on the Microsoft .NET framework. Which of the following related to the integration options is
accurate?
A. The developer will need to rewrite the .NET application in Java.
B. The developer must recompile the .NET application as a Visual C++ 6.0 application.
C. The developer will be able to connect directly to Content Manager from the .NET application.
D. The developer will be able to connect to Content Manager but only through a Java proxy class.
Answer: C
16. Which of the following options allows one to quickly develop an MS .NET application which accesses
data stored in a DB2 Content Manager Server?
A. Portlet
B. Web services
C. User exit on the Client for Windows
D. XML Services provided by the C++ API
Answer: B
17. Which THREE of the following files contain System Administration Client error logging information?
A. dklog.log
B. cmadmin.log
C. cmbadmerr.log
D. IDMSysAdmin.log
E. IDMcmberror.log
F. cmbadminerr.log
Answer: ABC
18. A Content Manager administrator has found that after importing users defined in LDAP into Content
Manager, the imported users are unable to log in to Content Manager. From the Tools>Logging menu
in the System Administration client, where would one change the tracing level to help diagnose this
problem?
A. General
B. System Administration
C. Library Server
D. Resource Manager
Answer: B
19. When a connection to a pre-existing Content Manager database server is being defined during an
installation of a new administrative client, what will happen if the schema name is omitted or typed
incorrectly?
A. The administrative client will fail to start.
B. The installation process will create a default schema.
C. The System Administration client list of servers will appear empty.
D. During startup the administrative client will ask the user to define a schema since it was missing during
installation.
Answer: C
20. An administrator wants to configure a federated search including a DB2 Content Manager server on an
iSeries platform. Which of the following files will need to be updated?
A. frnolint.tbl
B. cmbicmenv.ini
C. cmbicmsrvs.ini
D. cmbcmenv.properties
Answer: A
Free Testking IBM 000-081 System x Technical Principles V9 Exam Braindump
Free Testking IBM 000-081 System x Technical Principles V9 Exam Braindump, Test 000-081: System x Technical Principles V9.Section 1 – Introduction to Servers
Rank the servers in terms of scalability and performance
Develop specific customer criteria and application requirements, identify the appropriate server role (e.g., file server, mail, database, network infrastructure, virtualization)
Section 2 – Server Architecture
Assess a customer’s server environment and decide which RAID level(s) would be most appropriate.
Distinguish the key architectural and component differences of the Storage subsystem models.
Select the product that best utilizes the advantages of IBM System x technology.
Compare and contrast RAID levels and determine selection of RAID levels for a given customer requirement.
Evaluate a customer’s requirement for high availability and then select the appropriate high availability feature for a server.
Section 3 – Server Family
Distinguish the key architectural and component differences of the server models.
Distinguish between a blade and standard server environment. (Test fundamental difference between blade and standard server are I/O power and cooling restraints, etc.).
Select the appropriate server to meet customer requirements.
Section 4 – Server Options
Configure a Server to a customer’s requirements. Understand the Server’s specific standard features in order to determine what if any optional features are required.
Section 5 – Virtualization and Virtualization Technologies
Choose the appropriate technology that would be a key hardware component of the solution to meet customer needs.
Understand the customer?s deployed database environment, distinguish appropriate migration or consolidation opportunity.
Understand a customer’s virtualization needs, choose the appropriate technology that would be a key software component of the solution. (i.e. cpu consolidation; VMWare, ZEN, Microsoft’s entry).
Section 6 – External Storage
Based on requirements. Given a customer’s storage requirements, choose the approriate storage solution. (e.g., internal vs. external; fibre, SAS, Ethernet (iSCSI), also OS and applications.
Distinguish key differences of storage subsystems (e.g., capacity, relative performance, type (ie disk vs tape), disk types (SAS, SATA, FC), etc)
Select the correct storage solution based upon the customer’s requirements.
Propose an appropriate shared storage solution to meet customer requriements.
Section 7 – Rack and Power
Design proper power layout to provide power redundancy.
Select appropriate rack and power products.
Establish KVM requirements, select the appropriate Console Manager and / or breakout cables. Interpret a customer’s requriements for KVM and select the appriopriate KVM options
Select an appropriate rack
Section 8 ? Installation
Identify the proper tool for configuring an array on a ServeRAID, MegaRAID or DS3000/DS4000.
Select the appropriate installation method for a customer environment and configure the server to meet or exceed the requriements. (use “customization?)
Locally update BIOS, firmware level, and diagnostic version level and hard drive firmware, etc.NEW: Research the available BIOS, firmware, and diagnostic levels for a given server and features and assess whether you need to update them for the install.
Implement system deployment tools used to install server OS and software updates.
Configure IBM?s hardware management solutions (RSAII, BMC). Given an IBM Systems management option, differentiate a particular component or feature. (Can be broken down into further objectives to support add’l test items spread among domains).
Section 9 – Systems Management
Describe IBM?s hardware management solutions (RSAII, BMC)
Describe the features, functions, and capabilities of IBM Systems Director.
Section 10 – Maintainence and Troubleshooting
Use a centrally managed IBM System x tool to verify BIOS, firmware level, and diagnostic version level and update if necessary.
Perform troubleshooting on installation and configuration related problems.
Describe system deployment tools used to upgrade clients and servers (ex: RDM, SW distribution).
Identify the features and functions of UpdateXpress
Use UpdateExpress features and functions to update a System x server.
Identify some of the diagnostic features available on System x and Blade servers.
Configure ongoing updates for firmware and BIOS levels and diagnostic tests.
Identify available post sales resources and tools (if post sales equates to www.pc.ibm.com/support, etc.).
Given a set of symptoms, determine the appropriate IBM Director function to identify and resolve the problem.
Given a customer’s availability requirements, recognize the IBM’s predictive failure (PFA) technology.
Section 11 ? Resources
Determine if a server option is supported on a given server. single/dual/quad CPU, maximum memory, memory interleaving, number of PCI-x slots, internal storage/integrated disk controllers, physical characteristics, redundancy/high availability features, competitive advantage
Know where to go for more information when the answer is not readily available
Number of questions: at least 67
Time allowed in minutes: 75
Required passing score: 67%
Test languages: English
1. A manufacturing customer wants a consolidation solution that provides scale-out capability and the
highest processor density per rack unit.
Which solution meets the customer requirements?
A. IBM System x3950 M2 with Microsoft Virtual Server
B. BladeCenter with IBM Systems Director
C. IBM System x3950 M2 with VMware
D. BladeCenter with VMware
Answer: D
2. What is used in an IBM BladeCenter to provide cooling?
A. Fans for each blade
B. Chilled water
C. Blowers
D. Freon
Answer: C
3. A small manufacturing customer has purchased a DS4800 and wants to buy a drive expansion cabinet.
The customer wants to support SATA and FC drives in the same expansion cabinet.
Which expansion cabinet supports the customer’s requirements?
A. EXP420
B. EXP810
C. EXP710
D. EXP100
Answer: B
4. Which IBM Systems Director task will give you the ability to update BIOS and device drivers on System x
servers?
A. Update Manager
B. Tivoli Provisioning Manager
C. Server Configuration Manager
D. External Application Launch
Answer: A
5. A retail customer wants to identify the system BIOS version information on several IBM System x servers
and apply updates as required from a central location without causing server downtime.
Which IBM tool provides this capability?
A. Access Connector
B. ServerGuide
C. Systems Director
D. Remote Deployment Manager
Answer: C
6. A customer has an IBM BladeCenter E with ten HS22 Blade servers installed. Currently only one
Ethernet port is available for each server.
What is required to enable the second port on each server?
A. Fibre Channel Switch Module
B. Gb Ethernet expansion card
C. Myrinet Cluster expansion card
D. Ethernet Switch Module
Answer: D
7. A retail customer has just installed an IBM option into their server, but the option is not working properly.
Which of the following should be checked to determine if the device is supported in the server?
A. IBM ServerProven site
B. IBM Options Support Site
C. Hardware Compatibility List (HCL)
D. Configuration and Options Guide (COG) ?Compatibility list
Answer: A
8. If a System x server does not boot when the Power button is pressed, and the server emits one beep followed by two beeps in succession and then another single beep.
Which source should you use to identify the meaning of these indicators?
A. IBM Server Users Manual
B. ServerGuide Hardware Reference
C. Problem Determination and Service Guide
D. BIOS Error Logs
Answer: C
9. A retail customer requests an explanation of ProteXion.
Which of the following describes IBM Memory ProteXion?
A. Memory ProteXion is the way memory is divided in two ports, one port being mirrored to the other half.
B. Memory ProteXion is the process whereby a person can replace failed DIMMs of the same type, size,
and clock speed without turning off the server.
C. Memory ProteXion is the technology that uses redundant bit steering and provides DIMM/data protection
in the event of a DIMM failure.
D. Memory ProteXion is an automatic daily test of all the system memory that detects and reports
developing memory errors before they cause a server outage
Answer: C
10. A customer is concerned about their newly purchased System x server’s response time. The installed
application is CPU intensive.
Which IBM tool should the customer use to identify potential bottlenecks?
A. UpdateXpress
B. Capacity Manager
C. ServerGuide
D. System Availability
Answer: B
Free Testking 000-086 IBM System Servers Technical Certification Exam Braindumps
Free Testking 000-086 IBM System Servers Technical Certification Exam Braindumps, The 000-086 certification validates the skills required to plan, design, install, configure, and maintain IBM High Performance servers. The IBM Certified Expert will provide solution design and implementation support. This certified individual will also work to provide longer-term technical support activities including problem solving and resolution.
Number of questions will vary frequently
Required passing score will vary with frequent test changes:
Number of questions: at least 38
Time allowed in minutes: 75
Required passing score: 60%
Test languages: English
The number of questions presented will vary frequently. The passing score will change relative to the number of questions and the relative difficulty of those questions.
Evaluate and Establish Customer Environment and Plans
Evaluate and document current customer environment (i.e. equipment, software, staff usage, satisfaction, need for change and growth) including power, network, storage, SAN, back up, and rack space
Describe System x features, architectural advantages relevant to customer environment and plans. Contrast with current customer environment and competitive offerings at a level consistent with the customer audience. These features include:
Current and commonly occurring previous versions of System x
Related software and middleware.
Energy efficiency
Consolidation and virtualization
Business resilience and security
Storage products and services
Storage management options
I/O options
System management
Third party products
Memory configuration for price and performance
Solve customer business problems using tools, methods, resources and processes including:
Benchmarks
Capacity planning tools
Financial modeling tools
Consolidation tools
TechLine
Physical planning tools
Configuration tools
Apply Information / Installation Planning / Migration Considerations
Create an accurate solution including hardware, software, and services based upon the needs and expectations of the customer.
Identify areas of risk, discuss with the customer, Business Partner, the IBM team, and other relevant parties.
Create an implementation plan with the customer considering:
Server consolidation tools
Operating system installation
Team members and TDA issues (i.e. HVAC, Security, Networking, Operations, Storage, etc.)
System management (i.e. Systems Director, Tivoli, VMware, etc.)
Data or SAN migration
Multi node configuration
Physical site requirements
Change and configuration management
Skills assessment and education
Installation and Post Install Support
Consider tuning options for best performance
Review and establish customer support plan
Ensure implementation plan is executed per requirements, and the customer expectations have been met
1. A finance company wants a solution to consolidate their storage using the DS4000 series and
implement a disaster recovery solution across two data centers linked by fibre to duplicate the production
environment. The customer requires a solution with the least amount of system administration. Which
configuration would provide the best solution?
A. Implement one DS4800 at each location connected to the fibre link and use Remote Volume Mirror
(RVM).
B. Implement a DS4800 at each location using FlashCopy option and use host based replication to
synchronize the sites.
C. Implement a switched fabric using redundant SAN switches with a DS4800 using RVM option at each
location.
D. Implement a switched fabric using SAN switches connected via ISL with a DS4800 using RVM option at
each location.
Answer: D
2. The Integrated Adaptec AIC-9410 serial attached SCSI (SAS) controller in the x3800, x3850, and x3950
supports which of the following RAID types?
A. RAID 0, RAID 1, and RAID 5
B. RAID 0, RAID IE and RAID 5EE
C. Integrated controller does not support RAID
D. RAID 0, RAID 1, RAID IE, RAID 5, RAID 5E, RAID 5EE, RAID 5EEE, and RAID 60
Answer: C
3. A small bio-technical company is interested in implementing a 32-node Linux cluster. They have
developed their own software that allows all of the nodes to work on the same problem at the same time.
The application requires messages to be passed between the nodes. Each node will require access to a
shared storage pool of around 500GB. Which of the following questions will identify the inter-process
communication (IPC) networking requirements
A. Is the network capable of using 4x or 12x Infiniband
B. Will remote shell (rsh) be enabled for remote process initiation
C. What are the data transfer requirements for inter-node message passing
D. What type of data is being sent across the inter-process communication network
Answer: C
4. A retail customer is experiencing a performance bottleneck. The server is performing sequential I/O
requests with large block sizes of 64KB. Improving which of the following storage subsystem
characteristics has the biggest impact on this bottleneck?
A. Seek Time
B. Drive RPM
C. Data Transfer Rate
D. Cache
Answer: B
5. Which of the following is provided by attaching to a NAS storage system through redundant NICs?
A. High availability (with failover)
B. File sharing on the storage system
C. Greater number of LUNS available on the same storage system
D. Lower power consumption
Answer: A
6. Which of the following are functions of the XceL4v cache?
A. Memory mirroring
B. Approximately 5% boost in performance
C. Reduce traffic on the front side bus in a single node server
D. Provides a 2:1 compression ratio for data in cache
Answer: C
7. A Modular System specialist monitors a customer’s server that has poor performance. The customer is
running an x3850 with a ServeRAID 8i controller with write-back cache turned on and 6 drives in a RAID-5
array. It is a mission-critical server and must have a redundant storage system. Performance tests indicate that the Average Disk secfTransfer exceeds 20 ms. Which of the following is the lowest-cost method to
increase the throughput?
A. Disable the ServRAID cache
B. Change the RAID level to 10
C. Change the cache level to Write Through
D. Increase the number of read/write heads
Answer: C
8. A manufacturing customer is considering the x3850 to take advantage of hot-add memory. Which of the
following questions should be asked to determine if memory can be added without taking the server offline?
A. How much physical memory is going to be installed
B. Will the PC3200 RDIMM’s be implemented in groups of four
C. Will the full 64GB mirrored memory capacity be implemented
D. Will the application run in 32, 64 bit or mixed environment
Answer: A
9. A customer has a large facility that has its offices at one end and a manufacturing floor at the other. The
company is looking to implement new equipment that requires access to the company’s SAN that is over
2.4 kilometers away. Which of the following solutions will satisfy this requirement?
A. Install a longwave SFP in the office SAN switch and string a multimode fibre from the office to the
manufacturing floor.
B. Install a longwave SFP in the office SAN switch and string a singlemode fibre from the office to the
manufacturing floor.
C. Install a shortwave SFP in the office SAN switch and string a multimode fibre from the office to the
manufacturing floor.
D. Install a shortwave SFP in the office SAN switch and string a singlemode fibre from the office to the
manufacturing floor.
Answer: B
10. A manufacturer is deploying a custom application written to take advantage of multithreading features
and run in a Windows environment. The customer wants to know which processor family will run the
application most efficiently. Which of the following questions will provide the required information?
A. What is the application’s maximum processor scaling capability
B. Will the application run faster with Microsoft OLTP technology
C. Will the application benefit from larger disk cache and swap space
D. Can the application use Hot Swap Processor, Memory, and PCI-X technology
Answer: A
Free Testking IBM 000-011 Tivoli Ap Exam Braindump
Free Testking IBM 000-011 Tivoli Ap Exam Braindump, IBM Tivoli Ap Dependency + Discovery Mgr V7.1 Implementation : 000-011 Exam. The IBM 000-011 certificates give you possibility to work in any country of the world because they are acknowledged in all countries equally. This IBM 000-011 torrent certificate helps not only to improve your knowledge and skills, but it also helps your career, gives a possibility for qualified usage of IBM 000-011 exam products under different conditions.
1.Which three items must be specified when configuring IBM Tivoli Application Dependency and Discovery
Manager V7.1 to authenticate to an LDAP user registry? (Choose three.)
A.LDIF version
B.hostname of the LDAP server
C.the root of the distinguished name
D.the port number of the LDAP server
E.root user’s password for LINUX or UNIX
F.the name of the object class used to represent users in LDAP
Answer: BDF
2. An anchor server is to be deployed on a Windows 2003 Server.
Which supported Windows SSH software communicates to the IBM Tivoli Application Dependency and
Discovery Manager V7.1 server?
A.WinSSHD only
B.only WinSSHD or Cygwin
C.WinSSHD, Cygwin or Putty
D.WinSSHD, Cygwin or SSHWinClient
Answer: A
3. Which is a required step for configuring an IBM Tivoli Application Dependency and Discovery Manager
V7.1 anchor server?
A.run a discovery
B.create a gateway server
C.create an LDAP entry for the anchor server administrator
D.add access credentials for the anchor server in the Access List
Answer: D
4. Which statement is true about application descriptor files?
A.Application descriptor files are xml files that need to be deployed by the customer.
B.Application descriptor files automatically find Business Services and will create those Business Services
during discovery.
C.There are three different application descriptor file formats, all of which must be discovered during a
discovery run before applications will be automatically created.
D.Application descriptor files are xml files for which IBM Tivoli Application Dependency and Discovery
Manager V7.1 provides a graphical editor for their creation and deployment.
Answer: A
5. Where is the Create Custom Server button for the Unknown Servers found?
A.Inventory Results page
B.Custom Query Results page
C.Topology -> Physical Infrastructure pane
D.Discovered Components -> Application Infrastructure right button selection
Answer: A
6.What is used to change the maximum heap size for all IBM Tivoli Application Dependency and Discovery
Manager V7.1 Java applications?
A.-Xmx
B.-Xms
C.-Xmn
D.-XX:MaxPermSize
Answer: A
7. Which parameter in the collation.properties forces all modules to at least log at the current level?
A.com.collation.log.level
B.com.collation.debuglevel
C.com.collation.log.level vm.Topology
D.com.collation.deploy.dynamic.logging
Answer: A
8. An IBM Tivoli Application Dependency and Discovery Manager V7.1 server can be installed in many
different environments.
Which pre-requisite must be met prior to the installation?
A.acquire OS hosting preference only
B.acquire customer application preference
C.acquire customer hardware and firewall preference
D.acquire customer hardware and OS hosting preference
Answer: D
9. A customer’s IT department may have a preference for the type of database that is used.
What are all of the supported database for IBM Tivoli Application Dependency and Discovery Manager V7.1?
A.DB2 V8.2 and V9.1
B.DB2 V8.2, V9.1 and Oracle V9i, V10g
C.all flat files and relational databases, including DB2 and MySQL
D.DB2 V9.1, Oracle V9i and V10g, and Microsoft SQL Server 2005/2008
Answer: B
10. A customer is interested in running credential-free discoveries and Nmap is a great optional solution.
Which operating systems can IBM Tivoli Application Dependency and Discovery Manager V7.1 leverage
using Nmap?
A.Nmap on all platforms
B.Linux, AIX and Windows
C.Linux, Solaris and Windows
D.Linux, Solaris and AIX with Nmap v3.0
Answer: C
11. What are the two supported browsers and corresponding operating systems for the Product Console
and the Domain Manager? (Choose two.)
A.Netscape on UNIX
B.Internet Explorer V7 for Windows
C.Internet Explorer V6 and V7 for Windows
D.Firefox 2.0 for Linux, Solaris, AIX and Windows
E.Firefox 2.0 and Netscape for Linux, Solaris and AIX
Answer: BD
12. A customer wants to run credential free discoveries using Nmap. There is a firewall between the IBM
Tivoli Application Dependency and Discovery Manager V7.1 (TADDM) server and the target machines.
Which operating system combination is valid for the customer?
A.TADDM server and anchor server are on AIX
B.TADDM server on Solaris and anchor server on Linux
C.TADDM server on Linux and anchor server on Windows 2000 Server
D.TADDM server on Windows 2000 Server and anchor server on Linux
Answer: B
13. A customer has a firewall and requires an anchor server. They have a few machines available to use as an anchor server.
What are prerequisites for an anchor server?
A.no requirement needed
B.software requirement only
C.hardware requirement only
D.hardware and software requirement
Answer: D
14. What are three reasons to obtain information about the customer’s server operating systems from
system administrators? (Choose three.)
A.to optimize the logging level
B.to increase database performance
C.to determine the number of firewalls
D.to verify the output of Level 1 discovery
E.to evaluate the need for Windows gateways
F.to start the process to obtain access credentials
Answer: DEF
15. What information does IBM Tivoli Application Dependency and Discovery Manager V7.1 obtain from
lsof?
A.a list of files on UNIX and Linux
B.a list of open connection ports on Cisco devices
C.a list of open files and associated processes on Windows 2003
D.a list of open files and associated processes on UNIX and Linux
Answer: D
16. How is a community string used by IBM Tivoli Application Dependency and Discovery Manager V7.1?
A.to authenticate Apache servers
B.as an access credential for SNMP devices
C.to access only non-Cisco network devices
D.as a base value to encrypt passwords in collation.properties
Answer: B
17. What is the recommended maximum number of Configuration Items (CIs) or Computer Systems (CSs)
that the domain server can discover and store?
A.100,000 CIs or 2500 CSs
B.250,000 CIs or 2500 CSs
C.2 million CIs or 10,000 CSs
D.10 million CIs or 10,000 CSs
Answer: C
18. In a customer network environment, there are two firewalls between the IBM Tivoli Application
Dependency and Discovery Manager V7.1 (TADDM) server and the targeted systems. Behind Firewall #1
there are 1000 Computer Systems: 500Windows 2000 and 500Windows 2003 Servers. Behind Firewall #2
there are approximately 800 UNIX systems.
What are the two best architecture choices? (Choose two.)
A.Firewall #1: one AIX anchor server
B.Firewall #2: one Windows 2003 anchor server
C.Firewall #1: one Windows 2003 gateway server
D.Firewall #2: no anchor or gateway server is required
E.Firewall #1: one TADDM Domain Server and one Windows 2003 gateway server
Answer: BC
19. A customer has three data centers with 2500, 3000, 4000 Server Equivalents that need to be
discovered. The executives want the ability to view the related Business Applications of the data centers.
What is the minimum architecture requirement?
A.one IBM Tivoli Application Dependency and Discovery Manager V7.1 (TADDM) Domain Server with one
anchor server for each data center
B.one TADDM Domain Server for each data center with the ability to synchronize to one TADDM Enterprise
Server
C.one TADDM Domain Server to discover all three data centers and synchronize the data back to one
TADDM Enterprise Server
D.four TADDM Domain Servers, one domain for each data center with the ability to synchronize back to the
main focal point domain server
Answer: B
20. A customer has a firewall between 800 Windows Servers and the IBM Tivoli Application Dependency
and Discovery Manager V7.1 (TADDM) Domain Server. The customer requires that a single Level 3
discovery run be performed for all 800 Windows Servers at the same time.
Which architecture best meets the customers requirement?
A.a TADDM Domain Server with one Linux anchor server
B.a TADDM Domain Server with one Windows gateway server
C.a TADDM Domain Server with two Windows gateway servers
D.a TADDM Domain Server with one Windows anchor server and one Windows gateway server
Answer: C
Free Testking IBM 000-028 Tivoli Software Exam Braindump
IBM Test 000-028: Fundamentals of Applying Tivoli Service Availability and Performance Management Solutions 2009. This sample test is designed to give the candidate an idea of the content and format of the questions that will be on the certification exam. Performance on the sample test is NOT an indicator of performance on the certification exam and this should
not be considered an assessment tool.
To assess your current skill level and readiness for Test 000-028 – Fundamentals of Applying Tivoli Service Availability and Performance Management Solutions 2009, you can take a Web-based assessment test.
Passing this assessment test does not result in achieving a credential. It is designed to provide diagnostic feedback on the Examination Score Report, correlating back to the test objectives, showing how you scored on each section of the test.
For this assessment test, the passing score is 67% and the time provided to take the test is 90 minutes.
A 30 USD test fee applies worldwide to each time a test is taken, even if the same test is retaken. VISA, Master Card and American Express credit cards are accepted.
To take the assessment test:
Access the Web-based test delivery tool Prime.
If you already have an account on Prime, select Secure Sign-In and continue to Take Test. Otherwise select First Time Registration and follow the 2 steps below:
Step 1: If you already have a Prometric ID number enter it into Step 1. If you do not have one, proceed to Step 2.
Step 2: Select the Tivoli Certification Assessments section. Enter your demographic data and ‘Submit’.
Note: Choose your username and password that you will use every time you take a test via Prime. Record them for future reference, along with your ID number that Prime generates.
Select Take Test (first option).
Under Public Test (first rectangle), select the Tivoli Certification Assessments section, and ‘Submit’.
Select Fundamentals of Applying Service Availability and Performance Management Solutions 2009, and proceed with on screen instructions.
Number of questions: 55
Time allowed in minutes: 90
Required passing score: 67%
Test languages: English
1. Which statement is true about determining total user count for implementation?
A. The user count is irrelevant to the system requirements.
B. The user count is needed by the survey group for the final client satisfaction survey.
C. The number of users is important for determining the scope and scale of the implementation.
D. The number of users is directly related to the size of the authentication database; therefore, it is needed
for determining the size of the authentication server.
Answer: C
2. During a meeting with a client, an organizational chart containing all of the customer contact information
including the project sponsor, the implementation managers, operations managers, and end-user
managers is presented.
Who should be contacted to get a comprehensive list of experts?
A. the stakeholders
B. the customers CEO
C. the financial approver
D. the secretary of the customers CEO
Answer: A
3. Which two conditions should be met in order for the customer to understand the findings of the
requirements analysis? (Choose two.)
A. The presentation must be delivered to the CIO.
B. Requirements must be defined by the customer.
C. Recommendations must be presented to the customer.
D. Customer expectations must be documented in the analysis.
E. The format for the analysis must be provided by the customer.
Answer: CD
4. What are two important factors to consider when determining the delivery goals for a service availability
and performance management solution? (Choose two.)
A. the total resource commitment for staffing
B. which issues have priority and will be resolved first
C. feedback from the stakeholders after the final presentation
D. dependencies on existing service availability and performance management solutions
E. vendors that will be used for the service availability and performance management solution
Answer: AD
5. Which statement is always true about a relationship and a dependency between major project plan
milestones?
A. Pain points must be documented before defining the business processes.
B. Authentication requirements must be understood before the system is designed.
C. The service availability and performance management software installation is a prerequisite for software
configuration.
D. Existing service availability and performance management tools must be either configured or
decommissioned before new service availability and performance management tools are installed.
Answer: C
Free Testking IBM 000-701 db2 udb v8.1 database admin Exam Braindump
Free Testking IBM 000-701 db2 udb v8.1 database admin Exam Braindump, ibm db2 udb v8.1 database admin for linux unix&windows : 000-701 Exam. The IBM 000-701 certificates give you possibility to work in any country of the world because they are acknowledged in all countries equally. This IBM 000-701 torrent certificate helps not only to improve your knowledge and skills, but it also helps your career, gives a possibility for qualified usage of IBM 000-701 exam products under different conditions. The majority of companies in the sphere of information technologies require the presence of IBM 000-701 exams for the work in the company.
1. Which of the following statements is required to register a federated database source?
A. CREATE VIEW
B. CREATE WRAPPER
C. CREATE TRANSFORM
D. CREATE TYPE MAPPING
Answer: B
2. On which of the following event types can a WHERE clause be used to filter the data returned by the
event monitor?
A. TABLES
B. DEADLOCKS
C. TABLESPACES
D. CONNECTIONS
Answer: D
3. Assuming a user has CREATETAB privileges, which of the following privileges will allow the user to
create a table T2 with a foreign key that references table T1?
A. SYSCTRL
B. SYSMAINT
C. UPDATE on table T1
D. CONTROL on table T1
Answer: D
4. Which of the following is required to specify the output data during an EXPORT?
A. Union
B. Key range
C. Equi-join
D. Fullselect
Answer: D
5. Given an application with the embedded static SQL statement:
INSERT INTO admin.payroll (employee, salary) VALUES (”Becky Smith”,80000)
Which of the following privileges must a user hold to run the application?
A. ALTER on the table
B. INSERT on the table
C. DBADM on the database
D. EXECUTE on the package
Answer: D
6. Which two of the following are only possible using a redirected restore?
A. Redefining table space containers
B. Replacing a damaged recovery history file
C. Recovering table spaces in roll-forward pending
D. Specifying an alternate log path for roll forward
E. Restoring the database onto a different server with the same operating system
Answer: AE
7. Which two of the following DB2 commands can be used independently to update the statistical
information used by the optimizer when choosing an access path?
A. REORG
B. IMPORT
C. REBIND
D. RUNSTATS
E. CREATE INDEX
Answer: DE
8. Which of the following DB2 utilities can insert data into a view?
A. LOAD
B. UPLOAD
C. IMPORT
D. LOADVIEW
Answer: C
9. After a successful table space restore command, which of the following states will the table space be in?
A. Restore pending
B. Recovery pending
C. Restore in progress
D. Roll forward pending
Answer: D
10. Which of the following will the REORGCHK command display?
A. Only packages that need to be rebound
B. Only tables that need to be reorganized
C. Information to determine which tables need to be reorganized
D. The timestamp indicating the last time each table was reorganized
Answer: C
11. Given the following DB2DIAG.LOG entry:
“Crash Recovery is needed.”
and the database configuration parameter AUTORESTART is set to off.
Which of the following would be required to initiate crash recovery?
A. CONNECT TO
B. RESTART database
C. RECOVER database
D. RESTORE database
Answer: B
12. Given an application with the embedded static SQL statement:
INSERT INTO admin.payroll (employee, salary) VALUES (”Joe Smith”,30000)
Which two of the following privileges are required to successfully bind the application?
A. ALTER
B. INSERT
C. UPDATE
D. BINDADD
E. EXECUTE
Answer: BD
13. Given the following tables:
Referential integrity must be supported between parent table CANDIDATE and dependent table
TEST_TAKEN. Which of the following unique constraints can be used to support this referential integrity?
A. Foreign key on table CANDIDATE
B. Primary key on table CANDIDATE
C. Foreign key on table TEST_TAKEN
D. Primary key on table TEST_TAKEN
Answer: B
14. Given the following statement:
CREATE TABLESPACE dms1 MANAGED BY DATABASE USING (FILE ‘dms01′ 1024K)
How many pages will be created for the table space?
A. 128
B. 256
C. 512
D. 1024
Answer: B
15. Instances that are down are reported in the Health Center as which of the following alert states?
A. Alarm
B. Normal
C. Warning
D. Attention
Answer: D
16. Which of the following is supported when LOGRETAIN is OFF and USEREXIT is OFF?
A. Log archiving
B. Crash recovery
C. Rollforward recovery
D. Infinite active logging
Answer: B
17. A DBA has created three related backup tasks in the Task Center. After all three of these tasks are
completed, a fourth task must be run. Which of the following describes how the DBA can automate the
running of the fourth task based on the results of the first three tasks?
A. Indicate on the schedule for the fourth task that it is to begin when the first three tasks are completed.
B. Set a notification on the first three tasks that sends a note to the DBA indicating that the fourth task can
be initiated.
C. Create a grouping task for the three backup tasks. Create a task action for the fourth task to be run on
the completion of the group.
D. When creating the fourth task, indicate on the Success Code Set field that the first three tasks must run
successfully before running this one.
Answer: C
18. To examine the exhibit, press the exhibit button.
Given the following statement:
SELECT id, deptname, manager
FROM staff, org
WHERE dept=deptnumb
ORDER BY deptname
Which operator in the Visual Explain is performing the ORDER BY?
A. SORT(5)
B. SORT(11)
C. SORT(19)
D. FILTER(15)
Answer: A
19. Given the following command:
How many bufferpools are in the inventory database?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4
Answer: B
20. Given the following piece of a LIST APPLICATIONS output:
Auth Id ApplicationApplApplication Id DB # of
Name Handle Name Agents
CERTPAYROLL.EXE7*LOCAL.DB2.991004124355 STAFF 1
Which of the following commands will terminate the client application’s connection?
A. KILL APPLICATION (7)
B. FORCE APPLICATION (7)
C. DISCONNECT APPLICATION (7)
D. KILL APPLICATION payroll.exe
E. FORCE APPLICATION payroll.exe
F. DISCONNECT APPLICATION payroll.exe
Answer: B
Free Testking IBM 000-730 DB2 9 Fundamentals Exam Braindump
Free Testking IBM 000-730 DB2 9 Fundamentals Exam Braindump, The IBM 000-730 certificates give you possibility to work in any country of the world because they are acknowledged in all countries equally. This IBM 000-730 torrent certificate helps not only to improve your knowledge and skills, but it also helps your career, gives a possibility for qualified usage of IBM 000-730 exam products under different conditions. The majority of companies in the sphere of information technologies require the presence of IBM 000-730 exams for the work in the company.
1. Which of the following is NOT true about XML columns?
A. Data can be retrieved by SQL.
B. Data can be retrieved by XQuery or XPath.
C. XML columns must be altered to accommodate additional parent and child relationships.
D. Access to any portion of an XML document can be direct, without reading the whole document.
Answer: C
2. A DRDA host database resides on a z/OS or an i5/OS system and listens on port 446. The TCP/IP
address for this system is 192.168.10.1 and the TCP/IP host name is myhost. Which of the following
commands is required to update the local node directory so that a DB2 client can access this DRDA
database?
A. CATALOG TCPIP NODE myhost REMOTE db2srv SERVER 446
B. CATALOG TCPIP NODE mydb2srv REMOTE myhost SERVER 446
C. CATALOG TCPIP NODE myhost REMOTE db2srv SERVER 192.168.10.1
D. CATALOG TCPIP NODE mydb2srv REMOTE myhost SERVER 192.168.10.1
Answer: B
3. The following SQL statements were executed in sequence:
CREATE DISTINCT TYPE salary AS decimal(7,2) WITH COMPARISONS;
CREATE TABLE staffsalary(empid INT, empsalary salary);
INSERT INTO staffsalary VALUES (10, 50000);
INSERT INTO staffsalary VALUES (20, 50000.00);
UPDATE staffsalary SET empsalary = 60000
WHERE salary(50000) = empsalary;
What is the current content of the staffsalary table?
A. ID | EMPSALARY
0 | 60000
20 | 50000.00
B. ID | EMPSALARY
10 | 50000.00
20 | 50000.00
C. ID | EMPSALARY
10 | 60000.00
20 | 60000.00
D. ID | EMPSALARY
10 | 60000.00
20 | 50000.00
Answer: C
4. Given the following two tables:
TAB1
C1 C2
__ __________
1 Antarctica
2 Africa
3 Asia
4 Australia
TAB2
CX CY
__ _____________
5 Europe
6 North America
7 South America
Which of the following SQL statements will insert all rows found in table TAB2 into table TAB1?
A. INSERT INTO tab1 SELECT cx, cy FROM tab2
B. INSERT INTO tab1 VALUES (tab2.cx, tab2.cy)
C. INSERT INTO tab1 VALUES (SELECT cx, cy FROM tab2)
D. INSERT INTO tab1 (c1, c2) VALUES (SELECT cx, cy FROM tab2)
Answer: A
5. A UDT is a data type which _____.
A. must contain unique values.
B. cannot be CAST to other data types.
C. is created using the CREATE TYPE command.
D. contains a value that was automatically calculated from values in other columns.
Answer: C
6. Which of the following is true of an index used to support a UNIQUE constraint?
A. It must have the UNIQUE attribute.
B. It cannot be created explicitly by the user.
C. It must have the UNIQUE and CLUSTER attributes.
D. It must have the UNIQUE WHERE NOT NULL attribute.
Answer: A
7. Which of the following is the lowest cost DB2 product that can be legally installed on a Linux server that
has 6 CPUs?
A. DB2 Express Edition
B. DB2 Personal Edition
C. DB2 Workgroup Server Edition
D. DB2 Enterprise Server Edition
Answer: D
8. Which of the following is the lowest cost DB2 product that can be legally installed on an AIX server?
A. DB2 Express Edition
B. DB2 Personal Edition
C. DB2 Workgroup Server Edition
D. DB2 Enterprise Server Edition
Answer: C
9. Which of the following DB2 products are required on an iSeries or System i server to enable an
application running on that server to retrieve data from a DB2 database on a Linux server?
A. DB2 for i
B. DB2 Runtime Client
C. DB2 Connect Enterprise Edition
D. DB2 for i SQL Development Kit
Answer: A
10.Which product must be installed on z/OS to allow a COBOL program running on that machine to access
data on a remote DB2 for z/OS server?
A. DB2 for z/OS
B. DB2 Run-Time Client for z/OS
C. DB2 Connect Enterprise Edition for z/OS
D. z/OS Application Connectivity to DB2 for z/OS and OS/390
Answer: A
11. Which of the following tools can make recommendations for indexes and/or MQTs to improve the
performance of DB2 applications?
A. Design Advisor
B. Visual Explain
C. Performance Advisor
D. Configuration Assistant
Answer: A
12. Which of the following DB2 tools allows a user to execute an SQL statement and view a graphical
representation of the access plan?
A. Task Center
B. Command Editor
C. Design Advisor
D. Command Line Processor
Answer: B
13. Which tool must be used to analyze all of the database operations performed by an application against
a DB2 for i database?
A. Visual Explain
B. Activity Monitor
C. SQL Performance Monitor
D. DB2 Performance Monitor
Answer: C
14. Which of the following tools allows a user to create and debug a SQL stored procedure?
A. Control Center
B. Development Center
C. Data Studio
D. Stored Procedure Builder
Answer: C
15. Which of the following tools can be used to schedule a backup operation that is to be run every Sunday
evening?
A. Journal
B. Task Center
C. Activity Monitor
D. Command Line Processor
Answer: B
16. Which of the following tools is used to view historical information about tasks, database changes,
messages, and notifications?
A. Journal
B. Task Center
C. Control Center
D. Activity Monitor
Answer: A
17. Which of the following is the main feature of an OLTP application?
A. Summarized queries
B. Granular transactions
C. Voluminous historical data
D. Heterogeneous data sources
Answer: B
18. Which of the following is a typical data warehouse query?
A. What is this customers address?
B. Does this customer have any unpaid bills?
C. What is the balance in this customers account?
D. What are the total sales for each of the last 6 months?
Answer: D
19. Which of the following describes the age of the data in an OLTP system?
A. Current
B. Projected
C. Historical
D. Current and projected
Answer: A
20. for which of the following is a data warehouse optimized?
A. Backup and recovery
B. Transactions
C. Security
D. Queries
Answer: D
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1. Which two of the following can be done to a buffer pool using the ALTER BUFFERPOOL statement?
A. Reduce the size.
B. Change the page size.
C. Modify the extent size.
D. Modify the prefetch size.
E. Immediately increase the size.
Answer: AE
2. In a federated system, a userid is used for the CREATE SERVER definition at the DB2 data source.
Which of the following privileges should it have?
A. SELECT on the catalog at the DB2 data source
B. UPDATE on the CREATE SERVER definition table
C. SELECT on the tables for which nicknames are created
D. INSERT on the tables for which nicknames are created
Answer: A
3. A table is defined using DMS table spaces with its index, data, and long data separated into different
table spaces. The table space containing the table data is restored from a backup image.
Which of the table’s other table spaces must also be restored in order to roll forward to a point in time prior
to the end of the logs?
A. Long table space
B. Index table space
C. Temporary table space
D. Index and long table spaces
Answer: D
4. Which of the following can enable multiple prefetchers for table spaces with a single container?
A. NUM_IOSERVERS
B. INTRA_PARALLEL
C. DB2_PARALLEL_IO
D. DB2_STRIPED_CONTAINERS
Answer: C
5. Given a single physical server with a single OS image utilizing 24 CPUs and configured with 12 database
partitions, how many of the database partitions can act as coordinator partitions for remote applications?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 12
D. 24
Answer: C
6. Use the following information for this question:
Assuming a temporary table is required during the sort, what is the minimum page size for the table space
where the temporary table will be created?
A. 4 KB
B. 8 KB
C. 16 KB
D. 32 KB
Answer: B
7. Use the following information for this question:
Assuming a temporary table is required by the SORT for this query, in which table space will the temporary
table be created?
A. TBSPC4K
B. TBSPC8K
C. TBSPC16K
D. TBSPC32K
Answer: C
8. A table space contains a single table with a row size of 1000 bytes. What is the minimum page size for
the table space in order for the table to contain 200 million rows?
A. 4 KB
B. 8 KB
C. 16 KB
D. 32 KB
Answer: C
9. Which table space type is required to use a declared global temporary table?
A. USER TEMPORARY
B. GLOBAL TEMPORARY
C. SYSTEM TEMPORARY
D. DECLARED TEMPORARY
Answer: A
10. What option on the CREATE TABLESPACE statement determines on which database partition(s) the
table space will be created?
A. ON NODES
B. IN DATABASE NODE GROUP
C. IN PARTITION GROUP
Answer: D
11. When creating a regular DMS table space, what is the minimum number of extents that must be
specified?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6
E. 8
Answer: D
12. Which of the following SQL statements creates a table space that can contain LONG VARCHAR, LOB
and INDEX data?
A. CREATE INDEX TABLESPACE DATA1 MANAGED BY DATABASE USING (FILE ‘CONT1′ 2000)
B. CREATE LARGE TABLESPACE DATA1 MANAGED BY DATABASE USING (FILE ‘CONT1′ 2000)
C. CREATE ANYTYPE TABLESPACE DATA1 MANAGED BY DATABASE USING (FILE ‘CONT1′ 2000)
D. CREATE ALLTYPE TABLESPACE DATA1 MANAGED BY DATABASE USING (FILE ‘CONT1′ 2000)
Answer: B
13. Which two (2) of the following are characteristics of System Managed Storage (SMS) and Database
Managed Storage (DMS)?
A. SMS table spaces are always built on the file system.
B. DMS table spaces are always built on the file system.
C. SMS table spaces allow index and LOB storage in separate table spaces.
D. Only DMS table spaces allow the specification of OVERHEAD and TRANSFERRATE.
E. LOBs can only be cached in memory when they are stored in table spaces built on the file system.
Answer: AE
14. What option on the SQL statement ALTER TABLESPACE guarantees there will be no rebalance when
adding a container to an existing table space?
A. ADD AT END
B. NO REBALANCE
C. EXTEND STRIPE SET
D. BEGIN NEW STRIPE SET
Answer: D
15. A DMS table space is created but one of the containers is accidentally created in the wrong location.
Which of the following does NOT provide a valid method for moving the location of that container?
A. The db2dart tool can be used to move the container and register the change in location with DB2.
B. The table space can be backed up and a redirected restore performed specifying the correct list of
containers.
C. A container with the correct location can be added to the tablespace.
The container with the incorrect location can then be dropped afterwards.
D. The container can be manually moved to the correct location by the user.
The db2relocatedb tool can be used to then register the change in location with DB2.
Answer: A
16. Given the following information about a table space:
What is the maximum number of pages that can be removed from the table space using the REDUCE
option of the ALTER TABLESPACE SQL statement?
A. 300 pages
B. 340 pages
C. 460 pages
D. 500 pages
Answer: A
17. Which two of the following table space attributes can be changed after the table space has been
created?
A. Page size
B. Extent size
C. Transfer rate
D. Table space type
E. Table space name
Answer: CE
18. Which two of the following can be allocated in database shared memory?
A. Buffer Pools
B. Sort Heaps
C. Statistics Heaps
D. Client I/O Blocks
E. Application Heaps
Answer: AB
19. In a 64-bit instance, to immediately create a new buffer pool which of the following must the
DATABASE_MEMORY parameter be set to?
A. – 1
B. Dynamic
C. Automatic
D. The size of the new buffer pool
Answer: C
20. Buffer pools are allocated within which of the following memory areas?
A. Database heap
B. Database global memory
C. Application global memory
D. Database Manager global memory
Answer: B
