Free Testking Cisco CCNP 642-357 DCSNS Exam Braindump
Free Testking Cisco CCNP 642-357 DCSNS Exam Braindump, Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the Designing Cisco Storage Network (DCSN) course. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of selecting and integrating Cisco storage products to design a highly scalable, efficient, high performing storage networking solution based on converged architecture. Cisco Storage Networking Design Specialist professionals understand how to utilize and employ the features and benefits of the Cisco MDS 9000 Series Multilayer Directors and Switches, Cisco MDS 9509 Director Switch, Cisco 9216 Fabric Switch, and Cisco MDS 9120 products to create a high availability storage network design.
The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the Remote Access exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. In order to better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.
Perform a needs analysis that identifies the appropriate Storage Networking topology, protocols, and transport to meet customer’s requirements
Identify the interoperability requirements of a customer’s SAN
Design a solution that addresses a customer’s SAN requirements
Design appropriate IP configurations for a SAN solution
1. Which three Fibre Channel switch features are unique to Cisco’s MDS 9000 Series switches? (Choose
three.)
Select 3 response(s).
A. LUN Zoning
B. Read-Only Zones
C. Internet-Switch Link
D. Fibre Channel Congestion Control
E. FC Link Aggregation
F. FSPF
Answer: ABD
2. Which Cisco MDS 9500 Series feature addresses the customer requirement for five nines
(99.999-percent) availability?
Select the best response.
A. active and standby FC line cards
B. virtual output queuing (VOQ)
C. SSM card is installed in the switch
D. nondisruptive software upgrades
E. redundant fan cards
Answer: D
3. Which statement is true concerning the Cisco MDS switch when operating in native interop mode?
Select the best response.
A. The MDS switch can interoperate with Non-MDS switches that are certified by SNIA.
B. The MDS switch can interoperate with Non-MDS switches that support “MDS Native” mode.
C. The MDS switch can interoperate with Non-MDS switches that properly adhere to Fibre Channel switch
standards.
D. The MDS switch cannot interoperate with Non-MDS switches.
Answer: C
4. Which are two characteristics of the Cisco MDS Series fan modules? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. Supervisor modules shut down the fan modules when the air temperature is below a preset threshold.
B. If the Fan Status LED turns red, a fan has failed and the module must be replaced.
C. Fan modules monitor air temperature and shut down if the temperature exceeds a preset threshold.
D. Fan modules do not require the switch to be powered off in order to be replaced.
Answer: BD
5. Your customer has implemented an IPS-8 for FCIP connectivity to remote sites. How can this customer
prevent unauthorized hosts from connecting to the Cisco MDS 9000 fabric through the FCIP interfaces?
Select the best response.
A. Configure RADIUS authentication
B. Configure IPSec encryption on the IPS-8
C. Configure IP ACLs on the IPS-8
D. Configure fabric binding on the IPS-8
Answer: C
6. What are two ways of preventing unauthorized hosts from connecting to the management interface of a
Cisco MDS 9000 Family switch? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. use SNMPv3 only
B. configure IP ACLs
C. configure management VSANs
D. use digital certificates
E. implement RBAC
Answer: BD
7. Your customer has implemented an IPS-8 for iSCSI connectivity to workgroup servers. How can this
customer prevent unauthorized hosts from connecting to the Cisco MDS 9000 fabric through the iSCSI
interfaces?
Select the best response.
A. Configure RADIUS authentication
B. Configure IPSec encryption on the IPS-8
C. Configure IP ACLs on the IPS-8
D. Configure fabric binding on the IPS-8
Answer: C
8. What is the principal cost advantage of a collapsed core SAN design compared to a core-edge design if
each connects the same number of host and storage ports?
Select the best response.
A. fewer hops for a given exchange
B. fewer long-wave SFPs
C. fewer ISL connections
D. fewer domains on the domain list
E. fewer director-class switches
Answer: C
9. What is the best mechanism to use to isolate backup traffic from other mission-critical traffic?
Select the best response.
A. VSANs
B. zones
C. QoS
D. IVR
Answer: A
10. Which of these provides fabric-based virtualization for multiple independent software vendors?
Select the best response.
A. Storage Services Module (SSM)
B. Cisco MDS 9000 32-port 1/2-Gbps Fibre Channel module
C. Multiprotocol Services module
D. Cisco MDS 9513 Supervisor 2
Answer: A
1. Which three Fibre Channel switch features are unique to Cisco’s MDS 9000 Series switches? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).
A. LUN Zoning
B. Read-Only Zones
C. Internet-Switch Link
D. Fibre Channel Congestion Control
E. FC Link Aggregation
F. FSPF
Answer: ABD
2. Your customer has implemented an IPS-8 for FCIP connectivity to remote sites. How can this customer prevent unauthorized hosts from connecting to the Cisco MDS 9000 fabric through the FCIP interfaces?
Select the best response.
A. Configure RADIUS authentication
B. Configure IPSec encryption on the IPS-8
C. Configure IP ACLs on the IPS-8
D. Configure fabric binding on the IPS-8
Answer: C
3. Which statement is true concerning the Cisco MDS switch when operating in native interop mode?
Select the best response.
A. The MDS switch can interoperate with Non-MDS switches that are certified by SNIA.
B. The MDS switch can interoperate with Non-MDS switches that support “MDS Native” mode.
C. The MDS switch can interoperate with Non-MDS switches that properly adhere to Fibre Channel switch standards.
D. The MDS switch cannot interoperate with Non-MDS switches.
Answer: C
4. Which are two characteristics of the Cisco MDS Series fan modules? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. Supervisor modules shut down the fan modules when the air temperature is below a preset threshold.
B. If the Fan Status LED turns red, a fan has failed and the module must be replaced.
C. Fan modules monitor air temperature and shut down if the temperature exceeds a preset threshold.
D. Fan modules do not require the switch to be powered off in order to be replaced.
Answer: BD
5. Which Cisco MDS 9500 Series feature addresses the customer requirement for five nines (99.999-percent) availability?
Select the best response.
A. active and standby FC line cards
B. virtual output queuing (VOQ)
C. SSM card is installed in the switch
D. nondisruptive software upgrades
E. redundant fan cards
Answer: D
Free Testking Cisco Data Center 642-359 ICSNS Exam Braindump
Free Testking Cisco Data Center 642-359 ICSNS Exam Braindump, 642-359 Exam name: Specialist – Interaction Center/ Operational Analyst Design and Implement Exam. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the ICSN Implementing Cisco Storage Network and ICASN Implementing Cisco Advanced Storage Network course/s. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of The Cisco Storage Networking Solutions Support Specialist validates an individual’s knowledge of installing, configuring, and troubleshooting Cisco storage products to maintain a highly scalable, efficient, high performing storage networking environment. Cisco Storage Networking Support Specialist professionals understand how to deploy and optimize the features and benefits of the Cisco MDS 9000 Series Multilayer Directors and Switches, Cisco MDS 9509 Director Switch, Cisco 9216 Fabric Switch, and Cisco MDS 9120 products to provide fast and accurate resolution to network installation and customer service issues.. Topics covered include implementing appropriate IP configurations, Installing a Cisco Storage Solution, Implementing Cisco Storage equipment in multi-vendor multiprotocol environments, Implement the fabric design from the design document, Configuring security in a multiprotocol storage environment, Analyzing and tuning customer configurations to optimize application performance in multiprotocol storage networks and Troubleshooting SAN infrastructure.
The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the Remote Access exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. In order to better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.
Implement appropriate IP configurations
Install a Cisco Storage Solution
Implement Cisco Storage equipment in multi-vender multiprotocol environments
Implement the fabric design from the design document
Analyze and tune customer configurations to optimize application performance in multiprotocol storage networks
Troubleshoot SAN infrastructure
1. While examining the output of a show run command on the Cisco MDS 9000 Series, you notice that the
statement interface GigabitEthernet2/1.2 appears in the output. What does this mean?
A. It refers to the second FCIP tunnel that is configured on port GigabitEthernet2/1.
B. It refers to a VLAN subinterface on port GigabitEthernet2/1.
C. It means that port GigabitEthernet2/1 is assigned to VSAN 2.
D. It is a mistake in the interface configuration.
Answer: B
2. The HBA on your storage server only supports the NL_Port mode. Which interface type on the Cisco
MDS 9000 Series fabric switches can support this HBA?
A. F
B. TE
C. FL
D. N
E. E
Answer: C
3. For purposes of granting restricted access to statically configure iSCSI virtual targets, which three of
these can be used to identify iSCSI initiators? (Choose three.)
A. iSCSI node name
B. host name
C. IPv4 address and subnet
D. MAC address
E. IPv6 address
F. iSCSI WWN
Answer: ACE
4. What is a benefit of enhanced zoning?
A. fabric locked during configuration changes
B. larger zoning database size
C. database rollback in case of failure
D. zones allowed to span VSANs
Answer: A
5. How many ports are addressable on a fabric arbitrated loop?
A. 126
B. 127
C. 255
D. 256
Answer: B
6. Which three of the following are possible reasons why a line card module does not come online?
(Choose three.)
A. Port indexes have been taken offline.
B. Available port indexes are noncontiguous.
C. Not enough power is available in the chassis.
D. An invalid interoperability mode has been configured.
E. Unsupported SFPs have been installed.
F. Not enough port indexes are available.
Answer: BCF
7. Which of the following tools would you use to view SCSI error count statistics?
A. Cisco Performance Manager
B. RMON
C. Cisco Traffic Analyzer
D. Cisco Fabric Analyzer
Answer: C
8. Why would you use the fcanalyzer command?
A. to ensure that Fibre Channel configuration settings are synchronized across all switches in the fabric
B. to identify common configuration errors in the fabric
C. to nondisruptively capture and decode Fibre Channel control frames
D. to decode and analyze Fibre Channel frames and ordered sets on a link
Answer: C
9. Which two features help you verify connectivity between host and storage devices? (Choose two.)
A. fcanalyzer
B. Cisco Traffic Analyzer
C. End-to-End Connectivity Analysis
D. Zone Merge Analysis
E. fcping
Answer: CE
10. Which feature detects hardware faults and attempts recovery actions?
A. Switch Health Analysis
B. Fabric Configuration Analysis
C. Online Health Management System
D. End-to-End Connectivity Analysis
E. Cisco Fabric Services
Answer: C
Testking Cisco Sales Expert 642-176 Medium Business Exam Braindump
Testking Cisco Sales Expert 642-176 Medium Business Exam Braindump, The 642-176 SMBE SMB Engineer exam is the exam associated with the SMB engineer job role. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the SMB Solutions for Engineers (SMBE) course. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of designing and implementing Cisco SMB Solutions. Topics covered include: describing the components of the Cisco SMB Solution; discovering customer business and technical requirements; designing a Cisco SMB solution; and, implementing a Cisco SMB Solution.
The following information provides general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam.
Describe the components of the Cisco SMB Solution
Describe the basic functionality of LANs
Describe the basic functionality of WANs
Describe how Cisco SMB switches are used in a LAN solution
Describe how Cisco SMB Integrated Service Routers (ISRs) are used in LAN and WAN solutions
Discover customer business and technical requirements
Conduct an initial audit of existing customer business and technical architecture
Identify current and future customer technical requirements
Identify customer security requirements
Identify customer QoS requirements
Identify customer Wireless requirements
Identify customer Voice requirements
Design a Cisco SMB solution
Design a LAN for a Cisco SMB solution
Design a WAN for a Cisco SMB solution
Design a Layer 3 Cisco SMB solution
Design an integrated security Cisco SMB solution
Use Quote Builder to design the Bill of Materials
Document the SMB solution design for customer signoff
Implement a Cisco SMB Solution
Use SDM to configure Cisco ISRs for the SMB solution
Use CNA to configure Cat Express 500 switches for the SMB solution
1. Refer to the exhibit. What are the two options available when using the Security Audit configuration task
in Cisco SDM? (Choose two.)
A. Perform a virus scan.
B. Perform a secure audit on the router.
C. Perform a one-step lockdown on the router.
D. Perform a denial-of-service attack on the router to verify that it is protected.
E. Perform a real-time inspection of incoming traffic destined for the router.
Answer: BC
2. The recommended WAN access method for a simplified and cost-effective Cisco Single-Site Secure
Network Foundation deployment provides which type of service?
A. best-effort
B. low latency
C. guaranteed quality
D. guaranteed bandwidth
Answer: A
3. Refer to the exhibit. From this Cisco SDM Security Audit Wizard screen, what should you do to secure
the router?
A. Click Next.
B. Click Fix All, then Next.
C. Click Fix All, then clear CDP check box, then Next.
D. Click Fix All, then clear CDP check box, then Next, then immediately reboot the router.
E. Click Fix All, then clear CDP check box, then Next, then manually disable CDP on the WAN interface.
F. Click Fix All, then clear CDP check box, then Next, then manually disable CDP on the WAN interface,
then immediately reboot the router.
Answer: E
4. Refer to the exhibit. In a Cisco Single-Site Secure Network Foundation implementation, which factor
affects your choice of switch configuration?
A. type of QoS scheme that is being used
B. maximum number of supported IP phones
C. maximum amount of packet latency acceptable
D. type of security scheme that is being implemented
Answer: B
5.What is the reason for running spanning tree in a Cisco Single-Site Secure Network Foundation solution?
A. to allow management of all network devices
B. to aggregate logical network groups together at one central point
C. to protect the network in case someone inadvertently creates a physical loop in it
D. to ensure that if a device fails another device will automatically take over for it
E. to connect like devices, such as phones or computers, in logical network groups
Answer: C
6. Refer to the exhibit. Which Cisco SDM configuration task would you select to configure a static route to
the service provider?
A. NAC
B. NAT
C. Routing
D. Quality of Service
E. Intrusion Protection
Answer: C
7.Which statement correctly describes network security settings in Cisco Network Assistant for the Catalyst
Express 500 switch?
A. The default network security setting is “HIGH”.
B. The “LOW” setting enables broadcast storm control and limits the number of devices that can connect to
a switch port.
C. The “LOW” setting disables broadcast storm control and has no effect on the number of devices that can
connect to a switch port.
D. The “LOW” setting enables broadcast storm control, but has no effect on the number of devices that can
connect to a switch port.
E. The “LOW” setting disables broadcast storm control but limits the number of devices that can connect to
a switch port.
Answer: B
8. Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit is an example of which technology being implemented?
A. PAT
B. QoS
C. 802.1Q
D. VLANs
E. spanning tree
Answer: A
9. Which three of these are prerequisites for resetting a Catalyst Express 500 switch when Cisco Network
Assistant is unavailable? (Choose three.)
A. a switch with no connected devices
B. physical access to the switch
C. a PC pre-configured with a specific IP address and mask
D. at least one enabled switch port that is unconnected to any device
E. a PC or laptop with Windows 2000 or Windows XP installed and a web browser that has JavaScript
enabled
Answer: BDE
10. If voice and data traffic will be sent and received via a WAN link, what must be configured to provide a
certain amount of dedicated bandwidth and to prioritize the voice traffic over other types of network traffic?
A. IPSec VPN
B. NAT
C. QoS mechanisms
D. EIGRP routing protocol
E. Static routing
F. Firewall
Answer: C
Testking Cisco 650-251 LCSAUC Exam Braindump
Testking Cisco 650-251 LCSAUC Exam Braindump, The 650-251 LCSAUC Cisco Lifecycle Services for Advanced Unified Communications exam is the exam associated with the Advanced Unified Communications Specialization. The Cisco Lifecycle Services for Advanced Unified Communications (LCSAUC) exam assesses the candidate’s knowledge and skills needed to support implementing an advanced Unified Communications solution on a network throughout each phase of the lifecycle. The exam assesses Cisco’s methodology to guide customers in performing all of the necessary steps to ensure a successful implementation of Unified Communications solutions.
The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the Remote Access exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. In order to better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.
Describe the phases of the Cisco Lifecycle Services for Advanced UNIFIED COMMUNICATIONS.
The Phases are:
Prepare
Plan
Design
Implement
Operate
Optimize
Describe the value of the Cisco Lifecycle Services for Advanced UNIFIED COMMUNICATIONS
Describe the value of the Service Components included in the prepare phase
Describe the value of the Service Components included in the plan phase
Describe the value of the Service Components included in the design phase
Describe the value of the Service Components included in the implement phase
Describe the value of the Service Component included in the operate phase
Describe the value of the Service Component included in the optimize phase
Describe the value of the activities in each phase of the Cisco Lifecycle Services approach
Describe the value of the activities included in the prepare phase
Describe the value of the activities included in the plan phase
Describe the value of the activities included in the design phase
Describe the value of the activities included in the implement phase
Describe the value of the activities included in the operate phase
Describe the value of the activities included in the optimize phase
1. Quality of service is analyzed at which service component within the Cisco Unified Communications plan
phase?
A. Network Readiness Assessment
B. Application Readiness Assessment
C. Site Readiness Assessment
D. Operation Readiness Assessment
Answer: A
2. Which optimize phase service component assesses the current state of the network management
infrastructure of a customer to identity issues and opportunities that lead to recommendations for improving
the ability to manage their Cisco Unified Communications system?
A. Deployment Assessment
B. Technology Assessment
C. Security Assessment
D. Operations Assessment
Answer: D
3. Which statement most accurately describes the account planning service component in the prepare
phase for Cisco Unified Communications?
A. It performs a detailed financial analysis, including current phone network costs, training, and return of
investment.
B. It researches unique challenges and conducts competitive analysis to determine a vertical approach and
strategy.
C. It identifies the key players, high-level solution requirements, timelines, and scope of the opportunity.
D. It provides the partner with information regarding customer acceptance of the new solution.
Answer: B
4. Which phase includes conducting Cisco Unified Communications network traffic analysis and capacity
planning in order to ensure high availability?
A. Design
B. Prepare
C. Maintain
D. Optimize
Answer: D
5.Which two of the following activities are included in the Cisco Unified Communications staff development?
Select two.
A. Collect Cisco Unified Communications Training Materials
B. Develop Job Role Training Requirement
C. Request for Training Budget
D. Develop Curriculum Map
E. Develop Informal Basic Training
Answer: BD
Testking Cisco Sales Expert 646-203 CSE Exam Braindump
Testking Cisco Sales Expert 646-203 CSE Exam Braindump, The 646-203 CSE exam covers topics on AWID, Campus LAN, Wireless LAN, WAN, IP Telephony, Security and Virtual Private Networks, Network Management, Service and Support, Optical, Storage and Area Network, Content Networking, Video, and High Speed Network.
The following information provides general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. In order to better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.
Why Cisco
Identify the definition of, the components of, the function of, and the business benefits of Cisco IOS
Identify the key characteristics of Cisco that help meet customer needs
Identify key facts related to the origins and general strength of Cisco
Campus LAN
Identify the definition of a Campus LAN and identify the components of a Campus LAN
Identify the definition of a switch, the functionality of a switch, and differentiate between a hub and a switch
Identify the definition of a router and the functionality of a router
Identify the definition of a multi-layer switch and the functionality of a multi-layer switch
Identify the definition of the access area, distribution area, and core area of the Campus LAN
Given an access area, distribution area, or core area and the size of a LAN, identify which Catalyst series fits in the LAN
Identify five series of Cisco routers that connect a LAN to a WAN (Cisco 1700 Series Access Routers, Cisco 2600 Series Multiservice Platforms, Cisco 3700 Series Multiservice Access Routers)
Identify opportunities for switched Campus LANs
Wireless LAN
Identify the definition of wireless LAN and the components of a wireless LAN (Access points, Client adapters, Antennas, Bridges)
Identify descriptions of the methods for providing security for wireless LANs (SSI, Encryption, Authentication)
Identify opportunity indicators for Wireless LANs
Identify Cisco wireless products and their market placement
WAN
Identify the definition of a WAN, the backbone of a WAN and the edge of a WAN
Identify which Cisco product series (routers, switches, and gateways) should be used in a WAN
Identify which Cisco access server series or gateways should be used in a WAN
Identify opportunity indicators for WANs
IP Telephony
Identify the definition of IP telephony and the function of technologies that support IP telephony
Describe how IP components replace traditional network components and place them in a network map
Identify the features and functionality of the Cisco product series that support IP telephony
Identify opportunity indicators for IP telephony
Security and Virtual Private Networks
Identify the definition and purpose of network security and Virtual Private Networks
Identify the description of a common threat to network security
Identify the definitions of network security elements
Identify descriptions of network security components
Present the Cisco vision of security, wherein security is a required, embedded component across every area of, and device on, the network
Associate the appropriate Cisco product family or product series with five key elements of an overall plan for network security
Identify opportunity indicators for network security
Network Management
Identify the purposes and benefits of network management including maintenance, operational support, and security
Identify the benefits of the CiscoWorks family of products
Identify opportunity indicators for Cisco network management products
Service and Support
Articulate the value of Technical Support Services, Advanced Services, and Advisory Services for Cisco technology and how these programs help increase overall customer satisfaction
Recognize the difference between the level of support that customers receive under a warranty versus that of a service contract
Understand how service and support contracts help maximize customer satisfaction and loyalty, which helps account managers increase account control and profitability through customer satisfaction
Optical
Identify the definition, components, and uses for optical networking
Identify benefits of optical networking
Storage Area Networking
Identify the definition, components and uses of storage networking
Place the following Cisco product families in a network diagram and explain their purpose regarding storage networking (5400, MDS 9000, ONS 15000)
Content Networking
Identify the definition and uses of content networking
Identify appropriate insertion strategies
Identify the purposes of content networking components: content distribution, content routing, content switching, and content engines
Video
Identify definitions, components and uses of IP videoconferencing (IP/VC)
Identify definitions, components and uses of IP TV broadcasting (IP/TV)
Identify business benefits of IP videoconferencing and IP TV broadcasting
High Speed Access
Identify the definition, components, and uses of high speed access
1.Which component connects dissimilar network environments?
A. hub
B. MAU
C. gateway
D. repeater
Answer: C
2.Which feature of Cisco IOS allows customers flexibility and choice when electing platforms for their
networks?
A. open standards
B. quality of service (QoS)
C. remote software upgrades
D. broad installed base on platforms
Answer: A
3.An essential element of Cisco development has been its leading role in advancing hat network protocol?
A. Internet Protocol (IP)
B. Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP)
C. Serial Line Internet Protocol (SLIP)
D. Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM)
Answer: A
4.What is a network that is composed of smaller local-area networks (LANs) that xist within a business
campus?
A. campus LAN
B. LAN campus subnet
C. campus wide-area network (WAN)
D. campus storage-area network (SAN)
E. campus local-area neighborhood (LAN)
F. campus metropolitan-area network (MAN)
Answer: A
5.In which area of the campus local-area network (LAN) are the user computers ttached to the network?
A. core
B. access
C. distribution
D. aggregation
Answer: B
6.A company with 100 employees predicts that its employee number will triple in the next six months. It is currently using hubs to connect employee computers.Which solution should an account manager offer that
would best meet upcoming company needs?
A. optical network
B. storage network
C. switched network
D. Internet protocol (IP) telephony
Answer: C
7.Which open standard promotes interoperability among the wireless client adapters and dial-in servers of
various manufacturers?
A. 802.11b
B. service set identifier (SSID)
C. Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)
D. Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP)
Answer: D
8.Which two Internet Protocol (IP) telephony devices are best categorized as infrastructure components?
(Choose two.)
A. IP telephones
B. voice gateways
C. call management software
D. Media Convergence Servers (MCSs)
Answer: B D
9.Which network component blocks unwanted connections and content from both internal and external
sources?
A. firewall
B. extranet
C. access control
D. Virtual Private Network (VPN) tunnel
Answer: A
10.Which Cisco product allows customers to centrally manage their network security policies?
A. Cisco Firewall Services Module (FWSM)
B. Cisco Security Posture Assessment (SPA)
C. Cisco Secure Access Control Server (ACS)
D. Cisco Virtual Private Network/Security Management Solution (VMS)
Answer: D
11.A growing publishing firm needs a secure way for remote content editors to connect through the Internet
to the company extranet.Which Cisco solution best matches this business need?
A. IP telephony
B. wireless network
C. content networking
D. Virtual Private Network (VPN)
Answer: D
12.Which network technology allows for the monitoring of active communication networks to diagnose
problems and gather statistics for network administration?
A. network security
B. content networking
C. network management
D. campus local-area networking
Answer: C
13.SMARTnet and SMARTnet Onsite provide which two services? (Choose two.)
A. updates to all Cisco software
B. support for Cisco IOS software
C. registered access to Cisco.com
D. support for application software such as Cisco CallManager
Answer: B C
14.Which two characteristics of optical networks allow data to be transmitted over extremely long distances?
(Choose two.)
A. no encryption
B. minimal signal loss
C. no bandwidth limits
D. no electromagnetic interference (EMI)
Answer: B D
15.What are two benefits of an optical networking solution? (Choose two.)
A. supports bandwidth on demand
B. provides support for mobile workers
C. increases network transmission speeds
D. offers simple installation and configuration
Answer: A C
16.What is storage networking?
A. optical storage networks based on the Fibre Channel protocol
B. hardware and software that deliver rich media to the network edge
C. hardware and software that unite multiple server-based storage areas
D. a storage array attached to a server using a Small Computer Systems Interface (SCSI)
Answer: C
17.Which Cisco product provides network services that include management of virtual storage-area
networks (VSANs), advanced traffic management, and sophisticated diagnostics?
A. ICS 7750
B. MDS 9000 Family
C. ONS 15000 Series
D. 5400 Storage Router Series
Answer: B
18.Internet Protocol TV broadcasting (IP/TV) is appropriate for which two business scenarios? (Choose
two.)
A. a pharmaceutical organization that wants to provide daily updates on competitor products and any
external awards or news coverage the company receives
B. a manufacturing facility that needs to provide updated training on proper equipment usage and to allow
operators to hear and see peers at all participating sites
C. a global fast-food franchise that needs to coach new managers on best practices in customer service
and leadership behaviors and answer questions from the audience
D. an accounting firm that wants to deliver monthly training sessions to global finance personnel who need
to access sessions at different times, depending on branch locations
Answer: A D
19.Which two devices are considered customer premises equipment (CPE) for digital subscriber line (DSL)
systems? (Choose two.)
A. DSL router
B. DSL modem
C. DSL Internet Protocol (IP) switch
D. “Smart” DSL access multiplexer (DSLAM)
Answer: AB
20.A switch operates at Layer 2 of the OSI model.What is the name of that layer?
A. session
B. network
C. data link
D. presentation
Answer: C
Free Testking 646-563 Advanced Security Exam Braindump
Free Testking 646-563 Advanced Security Exam Braindump, 646-563 ASAM Advanced Security for Account Managers Exam, vExam Number: 646-563
Duration: 60 minutes (55-65 questions)
Available Languages: English
Click Here to Register: Pearson VUE
TopicsThe following information provides general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. In order to better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.
1.0 Describe and identify the capabilities of Cisco security technologies
1.1 Describe the value proposition of the Self Defending Network Strategy
1.2 Describe the business relevance of the Self Defending Network Strategy
1.3 Describe the business benefits of an integrated, collaborative, and adaptive network security solution
1.4 Describe the common components of an SDN solution
1.5 Describe how the SDN solution applies to different technology areas
2.0 Qualify an opportunity with a customer
2.1 Analyze customer current security posture
2.2 Assess customer security needs
2.3 Describe total cost of ownership benefits of security implementations
2.4 Evaluate business risk
3.0 Develop and recommend the appropriate Cisco solutions and services
3.1 Develop a Self Defending Network solutions recommendation
3.2 Describe how security standards and/or regulations affect markets
4.0 Describe the value of Cisco Lifecycle Services for Advanced Security
4.1 Describe the structure and organization of the Cisco Lifecycle Services approach
4.2 Describe the value of the activities included in the Prepare phase
4.3 Describe the value of the service components included in the Optimize phase
1. When do you align customer business requirements with the needed solution functionality?
A. when preparing for the business requirements workshop
B. while conducting the business requirements workshop
C. during preliminary technical discovery
D. in a technology strategy meeting
Answer: B
2. A company believes that buying and installing a firewall can solve their security problems. What reason
for insufficient security is this customer illustrating?
A. risk analysis
B. lack of perceived risk
C. quantifying risks
D. quickly evolving networks and applications
Answer: B
3. How does preliminary technical discovery benefit the customer?
A. Information regarding an existing customer network is analyzed, which allows an appropriate solution to
be developed.
B. Detailed technical requirements are defined and documented.
C. A technology strategy is presented to the customer.
D. The account team analyzes and validates the business requirements.
Answer: A
4. How does the Cisco SDN relate to compliance?
A. It addresses a large majority of PCI requirements.
B. It uses anomaly detection to secure a device.
C. It is point product-based.
D. It uses IP protocol 50 (ESP) to securely communicate to network devices.
Answer: A
5. What trigger question would you use when assessing the benefit of a secure network access solution?
A. Have you ever experienced business disruption from an Internet attack, such as viruses or worms?
B. Do you want to provision your VPN, firewall, and IPS devices with a single management system?
C. Do you think you have a thorough strategy for detecting and correlating network intrusions?
D. What type of end users and applications need to access your network?
Answer: D
6. What are two outcomes of preparing for the business requirements workshop? (Choose two.)
A. aligning the solution with customer business needs
B. defining stakeholders
C. discovering which requirements conflict with the solution
D. defining detailed customer requirements
Answer: BD
7. Which scenario illustrates a breach in security integrity?
A. A system upgrade slows the network down and prevents employees from accessing data.
B. Service is disrupted due to a power outage.
C. An unauthorized party obtains a credit card number.
D. Someone is able to cast a large number of votes in an online poll.
Answer: D
8. Which government regulation was designed to restore investor confidence in the financial reporting of
public companies?
A. Basel II
B. PCI
C. SOX Act
D. GLBA
Answer: C
9. Which government regulation specifies which patient information must be kept private, how companies
must secure the information, and the standards for electronic communication between medical providers
and insurance companies?
A. Basel II
B. GLB Act
C. HIPAA
D. USA PATRIOT Act
Answer: C
10. Which two of these describe how security contributes to profitability? (Choose two.)
A. by not complying with government regulations
B. by enabling businesses to gain the maximum advantage from advanced technologies
C. by decreasing downtime and productivity losses
D. by providing access to information based on need rather than location
E. by providing the company an insurance policy
Answer: BC
11. During the optimize phase, how can the account manager help the customer reach operational
excellence?
A. by enabling ongoing improvement of system performance and functionality
B. by evaluating the solution against competitor performance
C. by making recommendations for integration of the security solution
D. by defining project milestones
Answer: A
12. How do you calculate risk quantitatively for SLE?
A. single loss expectancy divided by the annualized rate of occurrence
B. exposure factor multiplied by the asset value
C. cost of recovery multiplied by the number of compromised servers
D. average revenue per hour divided by the hourly server downtime
Answer: B
13. Which compliance standard will directly affect the security policy of a local bookstore?
A. PCI
B. SOX Act
C. HIPPA
D. Basel II
Answer: A
14. Which government regulation was implemented to promote world financial stability by coordinating
definitions of capital and risk assessment across countries?
A. BS 7799/ISO 17799
B. SOX
C. HIPAA
D. Basel II
E. USA PATRIOT Act
Answer: D
15. Which two of these activities does the risk analysis process include? (Choose two.)
A. Determine the potential for each type of threat.
B. Identify potential threats.
C. Determine the impact on business.
D. Prioritize security needs due to cost.
E. Determine vulnerabilities
Answer: BC
16. What is the difference between Cisco Security Manager and Cisco Security MARS?
A. Cisco Security Manager focuses on monitoring and analysis.
B. Cisco Security MARS provides simplified policy administration.
C. Cisco Security MARS focuses on rapid threat identification and mitigation.
D. Cisco Security Manager can only manage small networks.
Answer: C
17. How is the Cisco SDN strategy collaborative?
A. Firewalling, VPNs, and trust capabilities are used.
B. Security features allow for communication between endpoints, network elements, and policy
enforcement.
C. Behavioral methods are deployed to automatically recognize new types of threats as they arise.
D. Security technologies are distributed to every part of the network.
Answer: B
18. How do you begin a meaningful security discussion with a customer?
A. Identify customer security needs and assets that need protection.
B. Discuss individual products such as the firewall.
C. Explain that there are many products that will meet customer needs.
D. Install security agents and IPS.
Answer: A
19. Which two Cisco SDN benefits would you emphasize when discussing security solutions with a
business decision-maker? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco SDN allows third-party devices to communicate.
B. Cisco SDN helps meet regulatory requirements.
C. Cisco SDN protects corporate information assets.
D. Cisco SDN uses UDP over port 80.
E. Cisco SDN uses port 447 to communicate to secure assets within a corporate network.
Answer: BC
20. When selling secure WAN, which two of these statements can you use to promote the Cisco solution
over that of Juniper? (Choose two.)
A. Juniper lacks voice integration in their routers.
B. Juniper provides point products.
C. Cisco supplies end-to-end security solutions.
D. Juniper can only effectively tackle enterprise customers.
E. Juniper purchased NetScreen Technologies to enhance secure WAN solutions.
Answer: AC
Free Testking 350-025 CCIE Service Provider Dial Exam Braindump
Free Testking 350-025 CCIE Service Provider Dial Exam Braindump, Cisco CCIE Service Provider Dial : 350-025 Exam. Cisco 350-025 Exam is a Cisco certification. With the complete collection of questions and answers, Our IT Exams Online Training and IT Certification Resources has assembled to take you through quality Q&As, lab, study guide to your Cisco 350-025 Exam Exam preparation. In the Cisco 350-025 Exam exam resources, you will cover every field and category in Content Networking helping to ready you for your successful Cisco Certification.
1. What command is used to set the length of time a non-ISDN interface stays down after a call has been
completed or has failed and before it is available to dial again?
A. dialer enable-timeout
B. dialer holddown
C. dialer fast-idle
D. dialer idle-timeout
E. dialer wait-for-carrier-time
Answer: A
2. interface Dialer1
ip address 1.1.1.1 255.255.255.0
encapsulation ppp
dialer remote-name Smalluserdialer
string 4540
dialer pool 3
dialer-group 1
What statement about this configuration is true?
A. This interface is configured for legacy DDR and therefore cannot be used for dialer profiles.
B. This interface is a logical interface whose configuration is only used for inbound calls on physical
interfaces in pool 3.
C. This logical interface belongs to a group of physical interfaces in group 1.
D. This configuration is not valid because it is missing the “dialer in-band” command.
E. This interface will use the name Smalluser instead of the router’s hostname for authentication purposes
when connecting to the remote peer.
F. None of the above
Answer: F
3. To have the router verify a called-party number in the incoming setup message for an ISDN BRI call:
A. Use isdn tei first-call
B. Include ldn on spid number line
C. Use isdn answer1
D. Use isdn caller
Answer: C
4. The purpose of the dialer fast-idle command is:
A. To decrease the amount of time that an interface is kept down before the next call can be placed – By
default, DTR is held low for five seconds.
B. To specify the amount of time that an interface can remain idle before being disconnected when new
outbound calls need to be made
C. To decrease the interdigit delay between DTMF tones when placing a call
D. To increase the rate at which disconnected interfaces become available for new outbound calls
E. To specify the regular idle timeout for high speed non-async interfaces
Answer: B
5. On a Cisco router with an external modem, what EIA 232 signal will be received by the access server to
indicate the presence of an incoming call?
A. Request To Send
B. Clear To Send
C. Data Terminal Ready
D. Data Set Ready
E. Loopback
Answer: D
6. While entering commands on a console, the break key is pressed accidentally and the router reboots.
What action could disable this problem?
A. In configuration mode, enter disable break.
B. In configuration mode, enter no service break.
C. Change the configuration register.
D. Replace the router – this is an invalid response to pressing the break key when past 60 seconds after
boot.
Answer: C
7. The network administrator has forgotten the enable password of the router. Luckily, no one is currently
logged into the router, but all passwords on the router are encrypted. What should the administrator do to
recover the enable password?
A. Call the Cisco Technical Assistance Center (TAC) for a special code that will erase the existing
password.
B. Reboot the router, press the break key during bootup, boot the router into ROM monitor mode, and
modify the configuration register so that the current configuration is ignored during normal bootup
C. Reboot the router, press the BREAK key during bootup, and boot the router into ROM Monitor mode to
erase the configuration, and re-install the entire configuration as it was saved on a TFTP server.
D. Erase the configuration, boot the router into ROM Monitor mode, press the BREAK key, and overwrite
the previous enable password with a new one.
Answer: B
8. The configuration register does NOT retain settings for:
A. An enabled ‘Break’ key
B. The console baud rate
C. The boot method
D. An enabled AUX port
Answer: D
9. Look at the router configuration above. If this router has a configuration-register setting of 0×102, select
the proper boot sequence:
A. The router will try to use the image “rsp-isv-mz.112-8.P” on slot 0, then attempt to boot from a network
server, and finally boot from ROM.
B. The router will try use the image “rsp-isv-mz.112-8.P” on slot 0, then attempt to boot from any other valid
image in flash, and finally boot from ROM.
C. The router will try to use the image “rsp-isv-mz.112-8.P” on slot 0, and then it will boot from ROM.
D. The router will try to use the image “rsp-isv-mz.112-8.P” on slot 0, and then attempt to boot from a
network server.
Answer: A
10. What effect will this configuration command have?line vty 0 4no password vtypassword
A. All telnet connections to the router will be denied.
B. Only one telnet connection at the router will be allowed at a time.
C. Virtual terminal sessions will not be able to enter enable mode.
D. Virtual terminal sessions will not be asked a user-level password.
E. It will have no effect.
Answer: A
11. For an OC-48 signal (2.5Gb/s), what is the BER (bit error rate) if there is 1 bit error every four days?
A. 10E-12
B. 10E-13
C. 10E-14
D. 10E-15
E. 10E-16
Answer: D
12. Select the group of technologies which are listed in descending order of bandwidth scale:
A. SDH, X.25, ATM
B. DWDM, SDH, Frame Relay
C. DWDM, SDH, ATM
D. ATM, DWDM, Frame Relay
Answer: C
13. What type of fiber-optic system is used to distribute cable television signals?
A. Point to multipoint
B. Local Area network
C. Switched
D. Point to point
Answer: A
14. The Hold-Down Timer used in Distance Vector protocols:
A. Sets the time limit of how long a router may keep a packet in its buffer, if the routing protocol is in the
process of converging
B. Determines the number of seconds a router will wait before sending another update to neighbor routers
C. Sets a specific period for routers to neither accept or advertise a route from a destination where an
original route was recently lost
D. Sets a duration where routes are not accepted from the neighbor router that caused a routing loop
Answer: C
15. The purpose of Administrative Distance, as used by Cisco routers, is:
A. To choose between routes from different routing protocols when receiving updates for the same network
B. To identify which routing protocol forwarded the update
C. To define the distance to the destination used in deciding the best path
D. To be used only for administrative purposes
Answer: A
16. What type of signaling is most relevant to ATM networks supporting SVCs?
A. H.323
B. Q.2931
C. ETSI.761
D. G.723
Answer: B
17. How long is an ATM cell header?
A. 5 octets (bytes)
B. 3 octets (bytes)
C. 8 octets (bytes)
D. The size varies by AAL type used
Answer: A
18. The NNI specification defines communications between:
A. An ATM end system and an ATM switch
B. Two ATM end systems
C. An ATM device and a non-ATM device
D. Two ATM switches from different carriers
E. Two ATM switches
Answer: E
19. What Delimits the beginning and the end of the Frame Relay frame?
A. Address
B. FCS
C. Data
D. Flags
E. Packets
Answer: D
20. What is true about the DLCI field in the Frame Relay header?
A. It consists of two portions, source and destination, which map data to a logical channel.
B. It generally has significance only between the local switch and the DTE device.
C. It is an optional field in the ITU-T specification.
D. It is present only in data frames sent through the network.
Answer: B
Free Testking 646-985 DCNSS Exam Braindump
Free Testking 646-985 Data Center Networking Solution Sales Exam Braindump, 646-985 Specialist – Interaction Center/ Operational Analyst Design and Implement Exam. The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the Remote Access exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. In order to better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.
Describe the business value of an end-to-end Cisco network solution
Describe the business benefits and value proposition of an end-to-end Cisco solution
Describe the Cisco competitive differentiators
Describe the Places in the Network (PIN)
Describe the value of Cisco validated designs
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Describe the application of Cisco routing and switching solutions
Describe the positioning of Cisco routing and switching solutions
Describe the ISR family routing solution for voice, wireless, security, virtualization and application acceleration
Describe attributes associated with stackable switches
Describe attributes associated with fixed configuration switches
Describe attributes associated with modular switches
Describe attributes associated with branch routing solutions
Describe attributes associated with headquarter routing solutions
Describe attributes associated with WAN Aggregation routing solutions (make sure there are questions associated with ASR)
Describe attributes associated with edge routing solutions
Describe advanced services available to Cisco routers and switches
Describe the benefits of QoS in a converged network environment
Describe the benefits of High Availability in a converged network environment
Describe the features available on Cisco routers and switches that enhance the network efficiency
Identify and describe software features that enhance and facilitate network configuration and operation
Describe the application performance and optimization benefits in a converged network environment
Describe the benefits of network management supporting routing and switching
Identify products available for monitoring a Cisco switched and routed network
Identify operating systems supported by Cisco management tools
Identify migration and upsell opportunities
Identify the indicators of a potential migration opportunity
Perform an inventory and assessment of a customers existing network
Identify upsell opportunities
1. Which product can deploy virtual SSL security contexts logically across the data center network from a
single physical device?
A. Cisco Nexus 7000 Module
B. Cisco Storage Services Module
C. Cisco Application Control Engine Module
D. Cisco Firewall Services Module
Answer: C
2. What two things can a business implement to achieve better utilization of IT resources? (Choose two.)
A. distributed management
B. role-based access control
C. embedded network intelligence
D. consolidation of data center resources
E. business continuity with mirrored primary and secondary sites
Answer: CD
3. Which explanation best describes the difference between a data center sales cycle and a traditional
network sales cycle?
A. A data center sales cycle begins much earlier in a project.
B. A data center account manager requires more technical skills than commercial skills.
C. A data center sales professional should use the customer’s network team to advise him when best to get
involved in the sales cycle.
D. A data center sales professional should wait until the design phase is complete before determining which
Cisco solution best fits the requirements.
Answer: A
4. What are blade switches?
A. end-of-row switches
B. top-of-rack switches
C. modules that fit into MDS switches
D. modules that fit into blade server chassis
Answer: D
5. How does the Cisco ACE XML gateway improve server performance?
A. by blocking XML traffic to the server
B. by offloading XML functions from the server
C. by providing SSL security for XML transfers
D. by translating XML messages to HTML messages
Answer: B
6. Which feature is a feature of Cisco WAAS?
A. firewall security
B. TCP optimization
C. Ethernet optimization
D. server load balancing
Answer: B
7. What is the function of Cisco Data Mobility Manager?
A. array-based data migration
B. fabric-based data migration
C. server-based data migration
D. appliance-based data migration
Answer: B
8. What are two benefits of unified fabric? (Choose two.)
A. reduced cabling
B. increased latency
C. reduced throughput
D. reduction of server adapters required for I/O
E. reduced I/O bandwidth, which allows Fibre Channel over Ethernet to work
Answer: AD
Free Testking Cisco 642-642 CCIP IP Communications QoS Exam Braindump
Free Testking Cisco 642-642 CCIP IP Communications QoS Exam Braindump, Cisco 642-642 CCIP IP Communications 642-642 QOS Quality of Service Exam, Associated Certifications: CCIP, CCVP, IP Telephony Design Specialist, IP Telephony Express Specialist, IP Telephony Operations Specialist, and IP Telephony Support Specialist
Duration: 90 minutes (45-55 questions)
Available Languages: English
Click Here to Register: Pearson VUE
Exam Policies: Read current policies and requirements
Exam Tutorial: Review type of exam questions.
The QOS exam is one of the qualifying exams for the Cisco Certified Internetwork Professional, Cisco Certified Voice Professional, Cisco IP Telephony Design Specialist, Cisco IP Telephony Express Specialist, Cisco IP Telephony Operations Specialist, and Cisco IP Telephony Support Specialist certifications. The QOS 642-642 exam will test materials covered under the Implementing Cisco Quality of Service QOS v2.1 course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has knowledge and skills necessary to configure and troubleshoot Cisco IOS routers running Quality of Service protocols in Service Provider and Enterprise environments. The exam covers topics on IP QOS, classification and marking Mechanisms, queuing mechanisms, traffic shaping and policing mechanisms, congestion avoidance mechanisms, link efficiency mechanisms, modular QOS command line interface, and QOS Best Practices.
The following information provides general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam.
IP QoS Fundamentals
Given a description of a converged network, identify problems that could lead to poor quality of service and explain how the problems might be resolved
Define the term Quality of Service (QoS) and identify and explain the key steps to implementing QoS on a converged network
IP QoS Components
List and explain the models for providing Quality of Service on a network
Explain the purpose and function of the DiffServ model
Describe the basic format of and explain the purpose of the DSCP field in the IP header
Define and explain the different per hop behaviors used in DSCP
Explain the interoperability between DSCP-based and IP-precedence-based devices in a network
Given a list of QoS actions, correctly match the QoS actions to mechanisms for implementing QoS and identify where in a network the different QoS mechanisms are commonly used
Modular QoS CLI and Auto-QoS
Given a network requiring QoS, explain how to implement a QoS policy using MQC
Explain how AutoQoS is used to implement QoS policy
Classification and Marking
Explain how link layer and network layer markings are used to define service classes and the different applications represented by each of these service classes
Given a network and a description of QoS issues, use MQC CLI commands to classify packets
Given a network and a description of QoS issues, use class-based marking to assign packets to a specific service class
Describe the function of Network Based Application Recognition
Describe the purpose of pre-classification to support QoS in various VPN (IPSEC, GRE, L2TP) configurations
Describe QoS trust boundaries and their significance in LAN based classification and marking
Identify the different classification and marking options available on Cisco L2 and L3 switching platforms
Congestion Management Methods
List and explain the different queuing algorithms
Explain the components of hardware and software queuing systems on Cisco routers and how they are effected by tuning and congestion
Describe the benefits and drawbacks of using WFQ to implement QoS
Explain the purpose and features of Class-Based WFQ (CBWFQ)
Explain the purpose and features of Low Latency Queuing (LLQ)
Identify the Cisco IOS commands required to configure and monitor LLQ on a Cisco router
Describe and explain the different queuing capabilities available on the Cisco Catalyst 2950 Switch
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Congestion Avoidance Methods
Describe the drawbacks tail drop as a congestion control mechanism
Describe the elements of a RED traffic profile
Describe Weighted Random Early Detection and how it can be used to prevent congestion
Identify the Cisco IOS commands required to configure and monitor DSCP-based CB-WRED
Explain how ECN interacts with WRED in Cisco IOS
Traffic Policing and Shaping
Describe the purpose of traffic conditioning using traffic policing and traffic shaping and differentiate between the features of each
Explain how network devices measure traffic rates using single rate or dual rate, single or dual token bucket mathematical models
Identify the Cisco IOS commands required to configure and monitor single rate and dual rate CB-Policing
Identify the Cisco IOS commands required to configure and monitor percentage based CB-Policing
Explain how the two rate limits, average rate and peak rate, can be used to rate limit traffic
Identify the Cisco IOS commands required to configure and monitor CB-Shaping
Identify the Cisco IOS commands required to configure and monitor Frame Relay adaptive CB-Shaping on Frame Relay interfaces
Link Efficiency Mechanisms
Explain the various link efficiency mechanisms and their function
Identify the Cisco IOS commands required to configure and monitor CB header compression
Given a list of link speeds and a specific delay requirement, determine the proper fragment size to use at each link speed and identify the typical delay requirement for VoIP packets
Identify the Cisco IOS commands required to configure and monitor Multilink PPP with Interleaving
Identify the Cisco IOS commands required to configure and monitor FRF.12
QoS Best Practices
Explain the QoS requirements of the different application types
List typical enterprise traffic classes then identify the delay, jitter, packet loss and bandwidth requirements of each traffic class
Explain the best practice QoS implementations and configurations within the campus LAN
Explain the best practice QoS implementations and configurations on the WAN customer edge (CE) and provider edge (PE) routers
1. SLA(Service-Level Agreement) is a contract between a network service provider and a customer, which
usually defines such terms as the type of service, the quality of service and the customer’s payment. In an
unmanaged CE router implementation, how does the service provider enforce the SLA?
A. by using class-based policing on the CE to PE link to limit the customer’s input rate
B. by using class-based random discard on the CE to PE link to limit the customer’s input rate
C. by marking on the CE to PE link and using CBWFQ and CB-WRED on the PE to P link
D. by marking on the CE to PE link and using class-based policing on the PE to P link
Answer: A
2. Refer to the following parameters, which of the following are not traffic characteristics that can be
affected by QoS tools?
A. Delay
B. MTU
C. Reliability
D. Bandwidth
Answer: C
3. After learning QoS, for the following options, Which of the following characterize problems that could
occur with voice traffic when QoS is not applied in a network?(choose two)
A. Voice sounds choppy.
B. Calls are disconnected.
C. VoIP broadcasts increase as Queuing delay increases, causing delay and caller interaction problems.
D. Voice call requires more bandwidth as lost packets are retransmitted.
Answer: AB
4. WFQ(Weighted Fair Queuing) is a data packet scheduling technique allowing different scheduling
priorities to statistically multiplexed data flows. For the following statements, what are two benefits of WFQ?
(Choose two.)
A. WFQ is very easy to configure, and no manual traffic classification is necessary.
B. WFQ can provide fixed-delay guarantees.
C. WFQ can provide fixed-bandwidth and fixed-delay guarantees.
D. WFQ can provide fixed-bandwidth guarantees.
E. WFQ prevents the large-volume flows with large packet size from starving out the low-volume flows with
small packet size.
Answer: AE
5. As a candidate for CCVP exam, can you tell me what does a router base its opinion of how much
bandwidth is available to a queuing tool on a serial interface?
A. The bandwidth command is required before a queuing tool knows how much bandwidth is available.
B. The automatically-sensed physical transmission rate on the serial interface.
C. The clock rate command is required before a queuing tool knows how much bandwidth is available.
D. Defaults to T1 speed, unless the bandwidth command has been configured.
Answer: D
6. For the following options, which of the following components of delay varies based on the varying sizes
of packets sent through the network?
A. Codec delay
B. Serialization delay
C. Queuing delay
D. Propagation delay
Answer: B
7. Which statement best describes the peer-to-peer traffic (Napster and Kazaa2) going out on the interface
s0/0 on the SF router?
A. The peer-to-peer traffic is not classified by the policy-map test , therefore all peer-to-peer traffic will be
dropped.
B. The peer-to-peer traffic will be classified into the class-default traffic class.
C. The peer-to-peer traffic will have a maximum bandwidth guarantee of 25 percent of the s0/0 link
bandwidth.
D. The peer-to-peer traffic will be classified into p2p traffic class.
Answer: B
8. The SF and SJ routes are running OSPF as the routing protocol. Since a policy-map applied to the SF
router s0/0 interface, the SF and SJ routers are no longer able to establish full OSPF adjacency between
them. On the basis of the SF router configuration and various show outputs from the SF router. Which
change to the policy-map in the SF router configuration could solve the OSPF problem?
A. Provide a bandwidth guarantee to the class-defalut traffic class using bandwidth percent 25.
B. Change bandwidth percent 5 for the cs6 traffic class to bandwidth percent 25.
C. Change bandwidth percent 5 fot the cs6 traffic class to priority 8.
D. Use the no police 8000 conform-action drop exceed-action transmit command for the cs6 traffic class.
Answer: D
9. What traffic type will be policed to 5-Mbps ingress to the SF router fa0/0 interface?
A. All traffic not matched by the bulk, cs6, p2p, or interactive class-maps.
B. All traffic not matched by the ospf, bulk, cs6, p2p, or interactive class-maps.
C. All traffic matched by the bulk, cs6, or interactive class-maps.
D. All traffic matched by the ospf, bulk, cs6, p2p, or interactive class-maps.
E. All traffic.
Answer: E
10. The “show ip nbar protocol-discovery” command is entered on the SF router but no NBMR traffic
statistics outputs are being displayed. What can solve this problem?
A. Configure the “ip nbar protocol-discovery” command within the fa0/0 interface configuration mode.
B. Configure the “ip nbar pdlm” command within the global configuration mode.
C. Configure the “ip nbar protocol-discovery” command within the test-in policy-map configuration mode.
D. Configure the “ip nbar protocol-discovery” command within the global configuration mode.
Answer: A
11. For the following statements about packet loss, which of the following is the most likely reason for
packet loss in a typical network?
A. Jitter thresholds being exceeded
B. TCP flush messages as a result of Round-Trip Times varying wildly
C. Tail drops when queues fill
D. Bit errors during transmission
Answer: C
12. Refer to the following 2950 switch configurations, which description is true?
A. Queue 2 is setup as the expedite queue.
B. Queue 3 is setup as the expedite queue.
C. Queue 4 is setup as the expedite queue.
D. Queue 1 is setup as the expedite queue.
E. No queue is setup as the expedite queue.
Answer: E
13. By learning voice ,Ignoring Layer 2 overhead, how much bandwidth is required for a VoIP call using a
G.729 coded? (Link: Voice Bandwidth Considerations)
A. 16 kbps
B. 32 kbps
C. 24 kbps
D. 8 kbps
Answer: C
14. The following is part of VoIP network topology of TestInside. Study the exhibit carefully. A typical
configuration involving an IP phone with an attached PC is shown. According to QoS recommendations, at
which demarcation line (shown as dotted lines) would the trust boundary normally exist?
A. C
B. B
C. D
D. A
Answer: B
15. Based on the judgement of voice traffic, which two components are of delay for a VoIP call, but not for a
data application?(choose two)
A. Packetization delay
B. Serialization delay
C. Queuing delay
D. Filling the De-jitter buffer
Answer: AD
16. The FRF.12 specification describes the method of fragmenting Frame Relay frames into smaller frames.
Refer to the following technologies, which one is required when configuring FRF.12 on a Cisco device?
A. FRF.8
B. VoFR
C. MLP with interleaving
D. FRF11.c
E. FRTS
Answer: E
17. On the basis of the deep understanding of voice and video traffic .Which of the following are true
statements of both Voice and Video conferencing traffic?(choose two)
A. All packets in a single call or conference are a of single size
B. Traffic is isochronous
C. Sensitive to delay
D. Sensitive to jitter
Answer: CD
18. The following commands have been configured under the fa0/1 interface on the 2950 switch:
Voice traffic from the IP phone that is directly connected to the fa0/1 interface is experiencing excessive
delays. On the basis of the configuration, what would most likely cause this problem?
A. The default cos-to-dscp map is being used.
B. The default wrr-queue cos-map is being used.
C. The default dscp-to-cos map is being used.
D. The wrr-queue bandwidth weightings are not correct.
Answer: B
19. Based on the understanding of QoS Policy, Which of the following are not one of the major planning
steps when implementing QoS Policies?
A. Define QoS policies for each class
B. Identify traffic and its requirements
C. Mark traffic as close to the source as possible
D. Divide traffic into classes
Answer: C
20. Part of the configuration information on a router displays as follows:
On the basis of the configuration, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. If the interactive traffic class exceeds an average rate of 256 kbps, the traffic rate will be throttled down to
128 kbps.
B. The interactive traffic class will have a minimum bandwidth guarantee of 256 kbps.
C. The interactive traffic class will have a maximum bandwidth guarantee of 256 kbps.
D. This configuration allows class-based traffic shaping to lower the traffic rate in response to the BECN bit.
E. The interactive traffic class will have a min-rate (min-cir) of 128 kbps.
Answer: DE
Free Testking Cisco 642-272 DMPS Exam Braindump
Free Testking Cisco 642-272 MeetingPlace Design Specialist Exam Braindump, 642-272 DMPS
MeetingPlace Design Specialist
Exam Number: 642-272
Duration: 75 minutes (55-65 questions)
Available Languages: English
Click Here to Register: Pearson VUE
Designing Cisco Unified MeetingPlace Solutions exam will cover topics relating to designing a comprehensive customer Cisco Unified MeetingPlace deployments with various options, identifying and evaluating the customer applications, IP Telephony infrastructure, and conferencing for voice/video and web requirements.
The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the Remote Access exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. In order to better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.
Gather the information needed to build an MP solution
Identify typical needs of customer conferencing communities
Identify typical capacity planning requirements
Identify the customer’s existing network components that affect MP solution
Identify the customer’s audio conferencing components that affect a MP solution
Identify the customer’s video conferencing components that affect an MP solution
Identify the customer’s web conferencing components that affect an MP solution
Identify the customer’s email/calendaring components that affect an MP solution
Identify the customer’s directory components that affect an MP solution
Identify the customer’s integration options that affect an MP solution
Communicate the architecures and benefits of an MP solution
List the components of an MP solution
List the features of an MP solution
Describe the architecture of an MP solution
Describe the interaction of the components of an MP solution
List the benefits of an MP solution
Size an MP solution
Size hardware for an MP solution
Size software/licensing for an MP solution
Size voice network/bandwidth requirements for an MP solution
Size web network/bandwidth requirements for an MP solution
Size video network/bandwidth requirements for an MP solution
Choose an MP solution to fit within a particular customer environment
Identify the impact of an MP integration on the current network components (ports, bandwidth, location, etc.)
Identify the security ramifications of an MP solution (firewall issues, SSL, CSA, anti-virus, browser popup blockers, plugins, etc.)
Develop a highly available MP solution based on customer requirements
Identify the topology to satisfy a particular customer need/environment
List the hardware/software/UL components needed to satisfy a particular customer need/environment1. What are two capacity-planning guidelines for voice and web conferencing customers? (Choose two.)
A. Build in growth factor of 1030 percent.
B. Consider customer LDAP vendor and number of profiled users.
C. When sizing on-premises web conferencing needs, assume only the internal WAN and LAN are
accessed.
D. Schedule and dedicate “crisis management” meetings.
E. Increase the number of ports by 40 percent if customers use resevationless-only meetings.
Answer: AD
2. Which four of these are used when planning capacity requirements for on-premises voice conferencing?
(Choose four.)
A. estimated external voice conferencing traffic percentage
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager and PBX deployment locations and size
C. estimated internal voice conferencing traffic (WAN and LAN)
D. estimated external and internal video traffic
E. VoIP endpoint types
F. fax machine endpoint types and locations
Answer: ABCD
3. Which two of these should you consider when planning capacity requirements for on-premises web
conferencing? (Choose two.)
A. WAN bandwidth between offices and a Cisco Unified MeetingPlace internal web server
B. WebEx bandwidth sizing for external web traffic
C. Internet bandwidth available to external web servers
D. estimated separate internal web user licenses
E. fully qualified domain name and DNS requirements
Answer: AC
4. Which two of these are used for gathering customer network information for deploying on-premises Cisco
Unified MeetingPlace voice/video and web conferencing? (Choose two.)
A. remote worker locations
B. video endpoint location and bandwidth requirements
C. multicast data traffic requirements
D. MPLS deployment requirements
E. communities of voice traffic
Answer: BE
5. What are three Cisco Unified MeetingPlace Media Server network requirements? (Choose three.)
A. colocated on same VLAN with Applications Server
B. colocated on same VLAN with internal web server
C. colocated on same VLAN with voice RTP traffic
D. Less then ~350 ms round-trip latency
E. Less than ~100 ms round-trip latency
Answer: ACE
