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1.What is the approximate capacity overhead of a cloned flexible volume at creation?
A.200%
B.100%
C.50%
D.0%
Correct:D
2.Which command would collect information about the firmware version running on a Brocade
4100 FC switch?
A.version
B.switchshow
C.show version
D.show switch
Correct:A
3.What is the read/write pattern for copyonwrite
(COW) based snapshots?
A.Readwriteread
B.Writereadwrite
C.Readwritewrite
D.Writeread
Correct:C
4.A customer has a 4node
SUN cluster configuration, and each node has 2 dualported
HBAs.
What is the minimum number of igroups that need be created to map a LUN to the cluster?
A.1
B.2
C.4
D.8
Correct:A
5.What could an E_Port represent?
A.A Fibre Channel hub’s connection to the FC switch.
B.A storage controller’s connection to the FC switch.
C.An interswitch
link connection between FC switches.
D.An unused port on the FC switch.
Correct:C
6.An ACME Corporation user has lost a file on their NetApp SAN. This user can go to
the .snapshot directory and retrieve the file. (True or False?)
A.True
B.False
Correct:B
7.ACME corporation currently has a NetApp Fibre Channel blockbased
solution. With limited
budget and resources, they want to create a new disaster recovery site that utilizes a NetApp
solution. The optimal solution would include ________.
A.SnapMover and Fibre Channel at the Disaster Recovery site for all hosts.
B.SnapMirror and iSCSI at the Disaster Recovery site for all hosts.
C.a combination of Fibre Channel and iSCSI.
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D.MetroCluster and NAS.
Correct:B
8.ACME Corporation has a NetApp 2Gb solution, and they only want to upgrade to 4Gb switches.
They would ___________.
A.not be able to do this because 4Gb is not supported.
B.add 4Gb HBAs into each controller and 4Gb HBAs to all systems.
C.add 4Gb HBAs into each controller.
D.replace the existing 2Gb switches.
Correct:D
9.Identify the SAN topology that provides best performance and scalability.
A.cascade
B.coreedge
C.full mesh
D.partial mesh
Correct:B
10.You connect a host to a Netapp storage system over a FC switch. The host has its boot
volumes on the storage systems. What do you have to configure?
A.persistent binding
B.port zoning
C.soft zoning
D.WWN zoning
Correct:A
11.What would you use to share a data LUN among mulitple servers where each server has
simultaneous write access?
A.hostbased
clustering
B.hostbased
multipathing
C.hostbased
volume manager
D.hostbased
clustered file system
Correct:D
12.Which THREE are performance tuning parameters available for Fibre Channel HBAs on a host?
(Choose three.)
A.HBA queue depth
B.Fibre Channel speed
C.frame size
D.LUN device ID
Correct:A B C
13.ACME Corporation is in the midst of deploying several applications over Fibre Channel. A
single NetApp volume will host three 100GB LUNs. The customer will not be using snapshots.
Select the minimum volume size required.
A.100GB
B.300GB
C.600GB
D.660GB
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Correct:B
14.When planning an installation of SnapDrive for UNIX 2.1 on Solaris 9, which is true?
A.SnapDrive for UNIX 2.1 can create volume groups that span multiple storage controllers.
B.SnapDrive for UNIX 2.1 can manage a boot disk, root volume groups, and system disks.
C.SnapDrive for UNIX 2.1 can create a striped volume group made up of different LUNs on the same
storage controller but in different aggregates.
D.SnapDrive for UNIX 2.1 can take a snapshot of volume groups that span multiple storage controllers.
Correct:D
15.When running in standby cfmode, if the host can no longer access the LUNs from Controller A
after an array controller failover to Controller B, what TWO things should you check? (Choose
two.)
A.The cabling between the storage controller and the switch.
B.The zoning on the switch.
C.The LUN masking on the storage controller.
D.The persistent bindings.
Correct:A B
16.NFS can access a mapped LUN on a NetApp solution for file read/write access. (True or False?)
A.True
B.False
Correct:B
17.On a Windows 2003 with the NetApp DSM MPIO environment with a FAS6000 HA configuration
running single_image cfmode, when you pull a cable, the I/O will failover. When you reinsert
the
cable, the I/O return to the original port. (True or False?)
A.True
B.False
Correct:A
18.SnapDrive for UNIX requires RSH access to the NetApp storage controller. (True or False?)
A.True
B.False
Correct:B
19.For FAS 270C, what are the cfmodes supported from Data ONTAP 7.1 onwards?
A.dual_fabric only
B.dual_fabric and single_image
C.dual_fabric and partner
D.dual_fabric and standby
Correct:B
20.In a singleimage
cfmode, what is the minimum required version of Data ONTAP?
A.6X
B.7.0.5
C.7.1
D.7.2
Correct:C
21.A LUN on the NetApp storage controller can be accessed by either FCP or iSCSI. (True or
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False?)
A.True
B.False
Correct:A
22.ACME Corp. is about to implement a disaster recovery project across two sites. Which THREE
issues can impact the performance of the solution? (Choose three.)
A.The distance between sites.
B.The RAID implementation.
C.The link between the remote sites.
D.The I/O characteristics of the application.
Correct:A C D
23.A 100GB thinly provisioned LUN is allocated to a Windows host. A 100GB of data is written into
the LUN. The current capacity utilization on the disk array as well as the host is 100%. 50GB of
data is deleted from the LUN. Determine the current capacity utilization on the disk array as well
as the host.
A.50% on the host, 100% on the disk array
B.100% on the host, 50% on the disk array
C.50% on the host, 50% on the disk array
D.100% on the host, 100% on the disk array
Correct:A
24.Which license do you have to install on the NetApp appliance in order to use SnapDrive?
A.NFS license
B.FCP license
C.CIFS license
D.Cluster license
Correct:B
25.Which hostbased
tool will enable you to stripe a LUN across multiple NetApp controllers?
A.multipathing software
B.hostbased
file system
C.hostbased
volume manager
D.HBA driver
Correct:C
26.What is the minimum size for a Windows 2003 LUN?
A.10 MB
B.20 MB
C.31.5 MB
D.50 MB
Correct:C
27.Which command will show that you have connected the right Brocade switches in the fabric?
A.fabricshow
B.switchshow
C.topologyshow
D.configshow
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Correct:A
28.Determine the appropriate FC topology based on the diagram below.
A.pointtopoint
B.switched fabric
C.arbitrated loop
D.ring
Correct:B
29.In Data ONTAP 7.2, which is mapped to a portset?
A.WWPN
B.LUN
C.igroup
D.volume
Correct:C
30.A customer has to purchase a CIFS license in order to use SnapDrive in a Windows
environment. (True or False?)
A.True
B.False
Correct:B
1. A company has deployed a NetApp dual controller FAS3100 series with iSCSI. Currently, there are five
Windows servers and three Novell NetWare servers connected to the IP SAN. The customer wants to
connect an HP-UX server to the IP SAN.
Which cfmode allows all operating systems to co-exist in the IP SAN?
A. single_image
B. standby
C. cfmode not applicable
D. dual_fabric
Answer: C
2. Click the Exhibit button.
A Solaris 10 host with VERITAS Storage Foundation 4.1 is FCP attached to a FAS3140 high availability
storage system running single image cfmode.
Using the diagram shown, which ports will be considered active by VERITAS DMP using the NetApp ASL to
a LUN on controller 1 mapped to host 1?
A. Port 0b on controller 1 only
B. Port 0d on controller 1 only
C. Port 0b and 0d on controller 1 only
D. Ports 0b and 0d on both controller 1 and controller 2
Answer: C
3. For which four operations would you use igroup throttles on a NetApp storage solution? (Choose four.)
A. to assign a specific percentage of the queue resources on each physical port to the igroup
B. to manage pathing to the LUNs
C. to reserve a minimum percentage of queue resources for a specific igroup
D. to limit the number of concurrent I/O requests an initiator can send to the storage system
E. to restrict an igroup to a maximum percentage of use
F. to manage space reclamation
Answer: ACDE
4. Which command do you use to see the rate of change between two successive Snapshot copies in a
flexible volume in Data ONTAP?
A. snap diff
B. snap calculate
C. snap delta
D. snap space
Answer: C
5. Which utility on Windows 2003 and Windows 2008 can be used to collect information about firmware and
driver versions for an Emulex LP1xxxx/LPe1xxx HBA?
A. EMutil
B. SANutil
C. fcp config
D. SANsurfer
E. HBAnywhere
Answer: E
6. Which utility on Solaris 10 can be used to collect information about firmware and driver versions for an
Emulex LP1xxxx/LPe1xxxx HBA?
A. EMutil
B. SANutil
C. hbainfo
D. SANsurfer
E. HBAnywhere
Answer: E
7. Which utility on Solaris 10 can be used to collect information about firmware and driver versions for a
Qlogic QLAxxx/QLExxxx HBA?
A. EMutil
B. SANutil
C. cfgadmin
D. SANsurfer
E. HBAnywhere
Answer: D
8. An organization currently has a NetApp Fibre Channel block-based solution. With limited budget and
resources, they want to create a new disaster recovery site that utilizes a NetApp solution.
What would the optimal solution include?
A. SnapMover and Fibre Channel at the disaster recovery site for all hosts
B. SnapMirror and iSCSI at the disaster recovery site for all hosts
C. Fibre Channel at both locations using ftp to replicate storage
D. MetroCluster and NAS
Answer: B
9. A company has a Fibre Channel environment and wants to connect a new host in a remote data center
using 50/125um OM2 multi-mode fiber cable and needs to support 2 Gb speeds.
What is the maximum distance of the cable run supported in this situation?
A. 50/125um OM2 multi-mode fiber cable supports up to 500 meters at 2 Gb.
B. 50/125um OM2 multi-mode fiber cable supports up to 10000 meters at 2 Gb.
C. 50/125um OM2 multi-mode fiber cable supports up to 150 meters at 2 Gb.
D. 50/125um OM2 multi-mode fiber cable supports up to 300 meters at 2 Gb.
Answer: D
10. Click the Exhibit button.
Given the information provided in the diagram, what is the appropriate FC topology?
A. point-to-point
B. switched fabric
C. arbitrated loop
D. ring
Answer: B
1. Which utility on Windows 2003 and Windows 2008 can be used to collect information about firmware and driver versions for an Emulex LP1xxxx/LPe1xxx HBA?
A. EMutil
B. SANutil
C. fcp config
D. SANsurfer
E. HBAnywhere
Answer: E
2. For which four operations would you use igroup throttles on a NetApp storage solution? (Choose four.)
A. to assign a specific percentage of the queue resources on each physical port to the igroup
B. to manage pathing to the LUNs
C. to reserve a minimum percentage of queue resources for a specific igroup
D. to limit the number of concurrent I/O requests an initiator can send to the storage system
E. to restrict an igroup to a maximum percentage of use
F. to manage space reclamation
Answer: ACDE
3. Click the Exhibit button.
A Solaris 10 host with VERITAS Storage Foundation 4.1 is FCP attached to a FAS3140 high availability storage system running single image cfmode.
Using the diagram shown, which ports will be considered active by VERITAS DMP using the NetApp ASL to a LUN on controller 1 mapped to host 1?
A. Port 0b on controller 1 only
B. Port 0d on controller 1 only
C. Port 0b and 0d on controller 1 only
D. Ports 0b and 0d on both controller 1 and controller 2
Answer: C
4. Which utility on Solaris 10 can be used to collect information about firmware and driver versions for an Emulex LP1xxxx/LPe1xxxx HBA?
A. EMutil
B. SANutil
C. hbainfo
D. SANsurfer
E. HBAnywhere
Answer: E
5. Which utility on Solaris 10 can be used to collect information about firmware and driver versions for a Qlogic QLAxxx/QLExxxx HBA?
A. EMutil
B. SANutil
C. cfgadmin
D. SANsurfer
E. HBAnywhere
Answer: D
6. A company has deployed a NetApp dual controller FAS3100 series with iSCSI. Currently, there are five Windows servers and three Novell NetWare servers connected to the IP SAN. The customer wants to connect an HP-UX server to the IP SAN.
Which cfmode allows all operating systems to co-exist in the IP SAN?
A. single_image
B. standby
C. cfmode not applicable
D. dual_fabric
Answer: C
7. An organization currently has a NetApp Fibre Channel block-based solution. With limited budget and resources, they want to create a new disaster recovery site that utilizes a NetApp solution.
What would the optimal solution include?
A. SnapMover and Fibre Channel at the disaster recovery site for all hosts
B. SnapMirror and iSCSI at the disaster recovery site for all hosts
C. Fibre Channel at both locations using ftp to replicate storage
D. MetroCluster and NAS
Answer: B
8. Which command do you use to see the rate of change between two successive Snapshot copies in a flexible volume in Data ONTAP?
A. snap diff
B. snap calculate
C. snap delta
D. snap space
Answer: C
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1. Which two statements are true about the [Full Access] privilege set in a FileMaker Pro 10 database? (Choose two.)
A. It must be assigned to at least one account.
B. It is the only privilege set that can use Custom Functions.
C. It is the only privilege set that can view the Relationships Graph.
D. It can be deleted only if another full access privilege set has been created.
Answer: AC
2. According to the FileMaker Server Configuration Guide, which two hard drive configurations are considered
acceptable best practices for storage of hosted databases? (Choose two.)
A. RAID 1
B. RAID 0
C. RAID 1+0
D. RAID 5
Answer: CD
3. A table in a FileMaker Pro 10 database has a field CompanyName of type Text. The following field validation
options are set for this field:
Validate data in this field only during data entry
Allow user to override during data entry
Require not empty
Display custom message if validation fails
A user imports a set of records into this table. Some records have no value in the CompanyName field.
What will occur?
A. All of the records will be imported. No error message will be displayed.
B. All of the records will be imported. The user will also see the custom error message.
C. None of the records will be imported. The user will also see the specified custom error message.
D. All records with a value for CompanyName will be imported. The user will also see the specified custom error
message.
E. All records with a value for CompanyName will be imported. The user will see an error dialog from the FileMaker
Pro application stating that some records could not be imported due to errors, along with a count of those records.
Answer: A
4. A FileMaker Pro 10 database contains the following two scripts:
Script A:
Set Variable [$$varFoo; Value:Get ( ScriptParameter)]
Perform Script ["Script B"; Parameter: $$varFoo / 2]
Show Custom Dialog [$$varFoo]
Script B:
Set Variable [$counterStart; Value:Get ( ScriptParameter)]
Set Variable [$counter; Value:$counterStart]
Set Variable [$x; Value:1]
Loop
Set Variable [$$varFoo, Value:$$varFoo + $x]
Set Variable [$x; Value:$x + 1]
Set Variable [$counter; Value:$counter-1]
Exit Loop If [$counter < .5 * $counterStart]
End Loop
Exit Script [Result:$$varFoo]
With a Script Parameter of 11 passed into Script A, what result is shown in the custom dialog when Script A
completes?
A. 11
B. 12
C. 14
D. 17
E. 34
Answer: D
5. Given the following formula:
Case (
PatternCount (Name ; ” ” ) > 2 ; RightWords (Name ; 2) ;
Position (Name ; ” ” ; 1 ; 1 ) > 0 ; LeftWords (Name ; 2) ;
MiddleWords (Name ; 2 ; 2)
)
If the field Name contains “John Q. Adams”, what will the formula return?
A. John Q
B. John Q.
C. Q Adams
D. Q. Adams
Answer: A
6. Given the following Relationships Graph:w0VFM10256Y The users want to view a list of unique product records
purchased by a found set of customers from the state of NY.
If the data in the system supports this request and there are no changes to the Relationships Graph, which two
techniques successfully accomplish this? (Choose two.)
A. On a layout based on Customer, include a portal based on the Product table occurrence. Find where State = “NY”.
B. On a layout based on Customer, Find where State = “NY”. Navigate to a layout based on the Products table.
Select the menu Records > Saved Finds and choose “NY” under Recent Finds.
C. On a layout based on Customer, Find where State = “NY”. Then run a script with the step Go To Related Records
[ ], using Match all records in current found set to navigate to the desired set of Product records.
D. Run a script from a special Customer layout that performs a Copy All Records/Requests[ ] script step, then
navigates to a Product layout including a Customer portal, uses Paste[ ] into a Find request, and finally Perform Find
[ ] to result in the desired found set.
E. Use a script to loop through the found set of Customer records, assembling a set of ID values into a global variable
$$customers. Navigate to a layout based on Products and in Find Mode enter the Customer::State field. Choose the
menu Requests > Paste Requests and specify State = $$customers. Click OK to perform the Find.
Answer: BC
7. What is the maximum allowable depth of the call stack at any point in a FileMaker Pro 10 Advanced custom
function?
A. 8,000 calls
B. 10,000 calls
C. 16,000 calls
D. 50,000 calls
Answer: B
8. What is the maximum theoretical file size for a FileMaker Pro 10 file?
A. 2 Gigabytes
B. 4 Gigabytes
C. 8 Gigabytes
D. 2 Terabytes
E. 8 Terabytes
Answer: E
9. Which three are capabilities of the Save Records as PDF script step? (Choose three.)
A. append to existing PDF
B. specify email recipients
C. create a “PDF Form” document
D. create a directory to export a PDF document into
E. create a PDF based on a layout with a blank record
F. specify a PDF name by referencing a variable ($variable)
Answer: AEF
10. What is the maximum number of recursive calls that can be made utilizing a custom function in FileMaker Pro 10
Advanced?
A. 10,000
B. 32,000
C. 50,000
D. 64,000
Answer: C
11. A script saves a group of records as a PDF. The resulting file needs to be saved on a user’s desktop and the
filename must contain that person’s name along with the current date (without additional user input).
How should the output file be specified in the script step?
A. Use a file path that references a variable containing the desired filename and path.
B. Use a file path that references a globally stored field containing the desired filename and path.
C. Use a file path defined by a calculation formula that uses both Get (DesktopPath) and the Get (UserName)
functions.
D. Use a file path that references a calculation field that uses both Get (DesktopPath) and the Get (UserName)
functions.
Answer: A
12. What is the theoretical maximum record count in FileMaker Pro 10 file?
A. 100 million records
B. 4 billion records
C. 8 trillion records
D. 64 quadrillion records
E. 128 quadrillion records
Answer: D
13. Which two events can activate an OnObjectModify script trigger? (Choose two.)
A. selecting a checkbox
B. scrolling in a portal
C. scrolling in a text field
D. switching tabs in a tab control
E. clicking a link displayed in a Web Viewer
Answer: AD
14. What is a reason to use the Let() function in a formula for a FileMaker Pro 10 calculation field?
A. to limit the iterations of a Loop() function used in the formula
B. to modify data in a text field referenced elsewhere in the formula
C. to define a custom function that can be used in other calculation formulas
D. to set a global variable $$var that can be used elsewhere (e.g. within a script)
Answer: D
15. What is the maximum size of binary data that can be stored in a container field?
A. 1 gigabytes
B. 2 gigabytes
C. 4 gigabytes
D. 8 gigabytes
Answer: C
1. A script saves a group of records as a PDF. The resulting file needs to be saved on a user’s desktop and
the filename must contain that person’s name along with the current date (without additional user input).
How should the output file be specified in the script step?
A. Use a file path that references a variable containing the desired filename and path.
B. Use a file path that references a globally stored field containing the desired filename and path.
C. Use a file path defined by a calculation formula that uses both Get (DesktopPath) and the Get
(UserName) functions.
D. Use a file path that references a calculation field that uses both Get (DesktopPath) and the Get
(UserName) functions.
Answer: A
2. A table in a FileMaker Pro 10 database has a field CompanyName of type Text. The following field
validation options are set for this field:
Validate data in this field only during data entry
Allow user to override during data entry
Require not empty
Display custom message if validation fails
A user imports a set of records into this table. Some records have no value in the CompanyName field.
What will occur?
A. All of the records will be imported. No error message will be displayed.
B. All of the records will be imported. The user will also see the custom error message.
C. None of the records will be imported. The user will also see the specified custom error message.
D. All records with a value for CompanyName will be imported. The user will also see the specified custom
error message.
E. All records with a value for CompanyName will be imported. The user will see an error dialog from the
FileMaker Pro application stating that some records could not be imported due to errors, along with a count
of those records.
Answer: A
3. Given the following Relationships Graph:w0VFM10256Y The users want to view a list of unique product
records purchased by a found set of customers from the state of NY.
If the data in the system supports this request and there are no changes to the Relationships Graph, which
two techniques successfully accomplish this? (Choose two.)
A. On a layout based on Customer, include a portal based on the Product table occurrence. Find where
State = “NY”.
B. On a layout based on Customer, Find where State = “NY”. Navigate to a layout based on the Products
table. Select the menu Records > Saved Finds and choose “NY” under Recent Finds.
C. On a layout based on Customer, Find where State = “NY”. Then run a script with the step Go To
Related Records[ ], using Match all records in current found set to navigate to the desired set of Product
records.
D. Run a script from a special Customer layout that performs a Copy All Records/Requests[ ] script step,
then navigates to a Product layout including a Customer portal, uses Paste[ ] into a Find request, and finally
Perform Find[ ] to result in the desired found set.
E. Use a script to loop through the found set of Customer records, assembling a set of ID values into a
global variable $$customers. Navigate to a layout based on Products and in Find Mode enter the
Customer::State field. Choose the menu Requests > Paste Requests and specify State = $$customers.
Click OK to perform the Find.
Answer: BC
4. Which two events can activate an OnObjectModify script trigger? (Choose two.)
A. selecting a checkbox
B. scrolling in a portal
C. scrolling in a text field
D. switching tabs in a tab control
E. clicking a link displayed in a Web Viewer
Answer: AD
5. What is a reason to use the Let() function in a formula for a FileMaker Pro 10 calculation field?
A. to limit the iterations of a Loop() function used in the formula
B. to modify data in a text field referenced elsewhere in the formula
C. to define a custom function that can be used in other calculation formulas
D. to set a global variable $$var that can be used elsewhere (e.g. within a script)
Answer: D
6. Given the following formula:
Case (
PatternCount (Name ; ” ” ) > 2 ; RightWords (Name ; 2) ;
Position (Name ; ” ” ; 1 ; 1 ) > 0 ; LeftWords (Name ; 2) ;
MiddleWords (Name ; 2 ; 2)
)
If the field Name contains “John Q. Adams”, what will the formula return?
A. John Q
B. John Q.
C. Q Adams
D. Q. Adams
Answer: A
7. A FileMaker Pro 10 database contains the following two scripts:
Script A:
Set Variable [$$varFoo; Value:Get ( ScriptParameter)]
Perform Script ["Script B"; Parameter: $$varFoo / 2]
Show Custom Dialog [$$varFoo]
Script B:
Set Variable [$counterStart; Value:Get ( ScriptParameter)]
Set Variable [$counter; Value:$counterStart]
Set Variable [$x; Value:1]
Loop
Set Variable [$$varFoo, Value:$$varFoo + $x]
Set Variable [$x; Value:$x + 1]
Set Variable [$counter; Value:$counter-1]
Exit Loop If [$counter < .5 * $counterStart]
End Loop
Exit Script [Result:$$varFoo]
With a Script Parameter of 11 passed into Script A, what result is shown in the custom dialog when Script A
completes?
A. 11
B. 12
C. 14
D. 17
E. 34
Answer: D
8. Which two statements are true about the [Full Access] privilege set in a FileMaker Pro 10 database?
(Choose two.)
A. It must be assigned to at least one account.
B. It is the only privilege set that can use Custom Functions.
C. It is the only privilege set that can view the Relationships Graph.
D. It can be deleted only if another full access privilege set has been created.
Answer: AC
9. According to the FileMaker Server Configuration Guide, which two hard drive configurations are
considered acceptable best practices for storage of hosted databases? (Choose two.)
A. RAID 1
B. RAID 0
C. RAID 1+0
D. RAID 5
Answer: CD
10. Which three are capabilities of the Save Records as PDF script step? (Choose three.)
A. append to existing PDF
B. specify email recipients
C. create a “PDF Form” document
D. create a directory to export a PDF document into
E. create a PDF based on a layout with a blank record
F. specify a PDF name by referencing a variable ($variable)
Answer: AEF
11. What is the maximum theoretical file size for a FileMaker Pro 10 file?
A. 2 Gigabytes
B. 4 Gigabytes
C. 8 Gigabytes
D. 2 Terabytes
E. 8 Terabytes
Answer: E
12. What is the theoretical maximum record count in FileMaker Pro 10 file?
A. 100 million records
B. 4 billion records
C. 8 trillion records
D. 64 quadrillion records
E. 128 quadrillion records
Answer: D
13. What is the maximum number of recursive calls that can be made utilizing a custom function in
FileMaker Pro 10 Advanced?
A. 10,000
B. 32,000
C. 50,000
D. 64,000
Answer: C
14. What is the maximum allowable depth of the call stack at any point in a FileMaker Pro 10 Advanced
custom function?
A. 8,000 calls
B. 10,000 calls
C. 16,000 calls
D. 50,000 calls
Answer: B
15. What is the maximum size of binary data that can be stored in a container field?
A. 1 gigabytes
B. 2 gigabytes
C. 4 gigabytes
D. 8 gigabytes
Answer: C
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COG-200 Test information:
Number of questions: 94
Time allowed in minutes: 120
Required passing score: 65%
COG-200 Test languages: English
1. The administrator has generated a group adjustment company (GAC). Which of the following actions will
a user be able to perform with the GAC?
A. Eliminate investments using automatic journals.
B. Enter reported value adjustments using a data entry form.
C. Enter data into group journals.
D. Create company journals.
Answer: C
2. When is a group company used?
A. When manual journals are needed.
B. When many parent companies are needed.
C. When consolidated figures need to be stored.
D. When automatic journals need to be created.
Answer: C
3. When creating a company, the administrator selects a consolidation type. What does the consolidation
type allow the administrator to do?
A. Use the same company in different structures.
B. Create separate local currency on subsidiary.
C. Create accounts.
D. Create specific dimensions.
Answer: A
4. How can an administrator validate company structures to ensure that they meet the application’s rules?
A. Verify Structures menu
B. Validate Data menu
C. Company structure log file
D. Consolidation Types – Define menu
Answer: A
5. When using a non-manual consolidation type, when would the administrator update the consolidation
structure?
A. When importing investments for a parent company.
B. When changing the company structure.
C. When adding an account.
D. When entering period data.
Answer: B
6. An administrator is setting up an account structure for a Controller application. The administrator is going
to reconcile the values in account 8999 (Profit and Loss for the Year) against those in account 2099 (Net
Profit). In the screen capture below, what does the + code indicate?
A. This year’s closing balance will be copied during reconciliation.
B. The previous year’s closing balance will be copied during reconciliation.
C. Reconciliation will be performed for the same period and actuality.
D. Reconciliation will be performed to the previous year’s closing balance.
Answer: C
7. An administrator wants to make it easier for end users to enter data into account 1310 (Investments in
Subsidiaries) by enabling the investment register. What investments code must the administrator specify for
this account?
A. I – in Group Companies
B. E – in External Companies
C. J – Intercompany with Transaction Currency
D. M – Intercompany with Margin %
Answer: A
8. A Controller administrator wants to track the changes between opening and closing balances of goodwill.
What type of account must the administrator create?
A. Income statement account
B. Movement account
C. Intercompany account
D. Cash account
Answer: B
9. Before movement accounts can be generated, where must the administrator enable the system for
movement accounts prior to their creation?
A. Define Company Structure window
B. Define Account Structure window, Overview tab
C. General Configuration dialog box, General 2 tab
D. Shareholdings and Investments window
Answer: C
10. An administrator wants to create movement accounts to track changes between the opening and
closing balances of account 1200 (Machinery and Equipment). What must the administrator attach to
account 1200 in order to generate these movement accounts?
A. Base accounts
B. Group journals
C. Movement extensions
D. Automatic journals
Answer: C
11. An administrator wants to create a non-integrated movement account to track the sale of buildings.
Which of the following is a valid account type for this movement account?
A. C – Expenses
B. R – Statistical account debit balance sheet account
C. E – Equity
D. I – Intercompany without Transaction Currency
Answer: B
12. An administrator wants to create an integrated movement account to track the purchase of machinery
and equipment. Which of the following is a valid account type for this movement account?
A. L – Liabilities
B. R – Statistical account debit balance sheet account
C. A – Assets
D. U – Statistical account credit profit and loss account
Answer: C
13. When creating an integrated movement account, what must an administrator connect to the base
account?
A. Closing balance of the movement account
B. One or more linked structures
C. One or more company journals
D. Opening balance of the group journal
Answer: A
14. An administrator has created a non-integrated movement account to track the closing balance of
machinery and equipment. What must the administrator specify for both the base account and the
movement account to ensure that the data is entered correctly?
A. Reconciliation code
B. Conversion code
C. Intercompany code
D. Investments code
Answer: A
15. An administrator wants to enhance data analysis by adding extended dimensions to the Controller
application (for example, to represent the products that the company sells). What is the maximum number
of levels for extended dimensions that the administrator can add to the system?
A. 5
B. 4
C. 6
D. 3
Answer: C
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1. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
a) Class constants are public
b) Class constants are being inherited
c) Class constants can omit initialization (default to NULL)
d) Class constants can be initialized by consts
A. a)
B. b)
C. c)
D. d)
Answer: C
2. How many elements does the $matches array contain after the following function call is performed?
preg_match(’/^(d{1,2}([a-z]+))(?:s*)S+ (?=200[0-9])/’, ’21st March
2006′, $matches);
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: C
3. How many times will the function counter() be executed in the following code?
function counter($start, &$stop)
{
if ($stop > $start)
{
return;
}
counter($start–, ++$stop);
}
$start = 5;
$stop = 2;
counter($start, $stop);
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Answer: C
4. Identify the security vulnerability in the following example:
1
2 echo "Welcome, {$_POST['name']}.";
3 ?>
A. SQL Injection
B. Cross-Site Scripting
C. Remote Code Injection
D. None of the above
Answer: B
5. Given the following code, what will be the value of $a?
$a = array(’a', ‘b’);
array_push($a, array(1, 2));
A. array(’a', ‘b’, 1, 2)
B. array(1, 2, ‘a’, ‘b’)
C. array(array(1, 2), ‘a’, ‘b’)
D. None of the above
Answer: D
6. You work for a shared hosting provider, and your supervisor asks you to disable user scripts to dynamically load PHP extensions using the dl() function. How can you do this? (Choose 2)
A. Set enable_dl to Off in the server’s php.ini configuration file.
B. Add dl to the current value of disable_functions in the server’s php.ini configuration file.
C. Add dl to the current value of disable_classes in the server’s php.ini configuration file.
D. Write a custom function called dl(), save it under the name prepend.inc and then set the auto_prepend_file directive to prepend.inc in php.ini.
Answer: AB
7. Type hinting in PHP allows the identification of the following variable types: (Choose 2)
A. String
B. Integer
C. Array
D. Any class or interface type
Answer: CD
8. Which of the following filtering techniques prevents cross-site scripting (XSS) vulnerabilities?
A. Strip all occurrences of the string script.
B. Strip all occurrences of the string javascript.
C. Enable magic_quotes_gpc.
D. None of the above.
Answer: D
1. How many elements does the $matches array contain after the following function call is performed?
preg_match(’/^(d{1,2}([a-z]+))(?:s*)S+ (?=200[0-9])/’, ’21st March
2006′, $matches);
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: C
2. What is the output of the following script?
1
2 class a
3 {
4 public $val;
5 }
6
7 function renderVal (a $a)
8 {
9 if ($a) {
10 echo $a->val;
11 }
12 }
13
14 renderVal (null);
15 ?>
A. A syntax error in the function declaration line
B. An error, because null is not an instance of ‘a’
C. Nothing, because a null value is being passed to renderVal()
D. NULL
Answer: B
3. What DOMElement method should be used to check for availability of a non-namespaced attribute?
A. getAttributeNS()
B. getAttribute()
C. hasAttribute()
D. hasAttributeNS()
Answer: C
4. How many times will the function counter() be executed in the following code?
function counter($start, &$stop)
{
if ($stop > $start)
{
return;
}
counter($start–, ++$stop);
}
$start = 5;
$stop = 2;
counter($start, $stop);
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Answer: C
5. Which of the following can be registered as entry points with a SoapServer instance (choose 3):
A. A single function
B. A single method from a class
C. Multiple functions at once
D. All methods from a class
E. All classes defined in a script
Answer: ACD
6. Which options do you have in PHP to set the expiry date of a session?
A. Set the session.duration directive in php.ini
B. Set session cookie expiry date locally via session_set_cookie_params()
C. Set session expiry date locally via session_cache_expire()
D. None of the above
Answer: D
7. Which of the following filtering techniques prevents cross-site scripting (XSS) vulnerabilities?
A. Strip all occurrences of the string script.
B. Strip all occurrences of the string javascript.
C. Enable magic_quotes_gpc.
D. None of the above.
Answer: D
8. Given the following code, what will be the value of $a?
$a = array(’a', ‘b’);
array_push($a, array(1, 2));
A. array(’a', ‘b’, 1, 2)
B. array(1, 2, ‘a’, ‘b’)
C. array(array(1, 2), ‘a’, ‘b’)
D. None of the above
Answer: D
9. What is the content of $c after the following code has executed?
$a = 2;
$b = 3;
$c = ($a++ * ++$b);
A. 0
B. 5
C. 8
D. 4
Answer:
10. What is the output of the following code?
echo 0×33, ‘ monkeys sit on ‘, 011, ‘ trees.’;
A. 33 monkeys sit on 11 trees.
B. 51 monkeys sit on 9 trees.
C. monkeys sit on trees.
D. 0×33 monkeys sit on 011 trees.
Answer: B
11. You analyze the code of a collegue and see, it uses the function strcasecmp. You try it out to see what it does
and use the following function call:
strcasecmp(’hello my dear!’, ‘Hello my DEAR!’);
The function call returns “0″. What does that mean?
A. String 1 is less than string 2.
B. The strings are considered equal.
C. String 2 is less than string 1.
D. The strings have equal length.
Answer: B
12. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
a) Class constants are public
b) Class constants are being inherited
c) Class constants can omit initialization (default to NULL)
d) Class constants can be initialized by consts
A. a)
B. b)
C. c)
D. d)
Answer: C
13. When a class is defined as final it:
A. Can no longer be extended by other classes.
B. Means methods in the class are not over-loadable.
C. Cannot be defined as such, final is only applicable to object methods.
D. Is no longer iteratable.
Answer: A
14. REST is a(n) …
A. Web service protocol similar to SOAP with a strict XML schema.
B. Principle to exchange information using XML and HTTP.
C. API to get information from social networking sites.
Answer: B
15. A script residing at http://example.com/phpcert/cookies.php contains the following code:
1
2 setcookie('name1', 'value1', time() + 60*60*24, '/');
3 setcookie('name1', 'value2');
4 ?>
The web browser is configured to accept all cookies. How many cookies will be set by this script?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Answer: C
16. Type hinting in PHP allows the identification of the following variable types: (Choose 2)
A. String
B. Integer
C. Array
D. Any class or interface type
Answer: CD
17. You work for a shared hosting provider, and your supervisor asks you to disable user scripts to dynamically load
PHP extensions using the dl() function. How can you do this? (Choose 2)
A. Set enable_dl to Off in the server’s php.ini configuration file.
B. Add dl to the current value of disable_functions in the server’s php.ini configuration file.
C. Add dl to the current value of disable_classes in the server’s php.ini configuration file.
D. Write a custom function called dl(), save it under the name prepend.inc and then set the auto_prepend_file directive
to prepend.inc in php.ini.
Answer: AB
18. Which parts of the text are matched in the following regular expression?
1
2 $text = <<
4 EOT;
5
6 preg_match_all('@b.n?g@', $text, $matches);
7 ?>
A. bang bong bung
B. bang bonged bung
C. big bang bong bung
D. big bang bung
Answer: C
19. Identify the security vulnerability in the following example:
1
2 echo "Welcome, {$_POST['name']}.";
3 ?>
A. SQL Injection
B. Cross-Site Scripting
C. Remote Code Injection
D. None of the above
Answer: B
20. Which of the following data types is implicitly passed by reference in PHP 5 while it is passed by value in PHP 4?
A. Class
B. String
C. Object
D. Array
Answer: C
1. You work for a shared hosting provider, and your supervisor asks you to disable user scripts to
dynamically load PHP extensions using the dl() function. How can you do this? (Choose 2)
A. Set enable_dl to Off in the server’s php.ini configuration file.
B. Add dl to the current value of disable_functions in the server’s php.ini configuration file.
C. Add dl to the current value of disable_classes in the server’s php.ini configuration file.
D. Write a custom function called dl(), save it under the name prepend.inc and then set the
auto_prepend_file directive to prepend.inc in php.ini.
Answer: AB
2. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
a) Class constants are public
b) Class constants are being inherited
c) Class constants can omit initialization (default to NULL)
d) Class constants can be initialized by consts
A. a)
B. b)
C. c)
D. d)
Answer: C
3. Type hinting in PHP allows the identification of the following variable types: (Choose 2)
A. String
B. Integer
C. Array
D. Any class or interface type
Answer: CD
4. How many elements does the $matches array contain after the following function call is performed?
preg_match(’/^(\d{1,2}([a-z]+))(?:\s*)\S+ (?=200[0-9])/’, ’21st March
2006′, $matches);
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: C
5. Given the following code, what will be the value of $a?
$a = array(’a', ‘b’);
array_push($a, array(1, 2));
A. array(’a', ‘b’, 1, 2)
B. array(1, 2, ‘a’, ‘b’)
C. array(array(1, 2), ‘a’, ‘b’)
D. None of the above
Answer: D
6. Which of the following filtering techniques prevents cross-site scripting (XSS) vulnerabilities?
A. Strip all occurrences of the string script.
B. Strip all occurrences of the string javascript.
C. Enable magic_quotes_gpc.
D. None of the above.
Answer: D
7. Identify the security vulnerability in the following example:
1
2 echo "Welcome, {$_POST['name']}.";
3 ?>
A. SQL Injection
B. Cross-Site Scripting
C. Remote Code Injection
D. None of the above
Answer: B
8. How many times will the function counter() be executed in the following code?
function counter($start, &$stop)
{
if ($stop > $start)
{
return;
}
counter($start–, ++$stop);
}
$start = 5;
$stop = 2;
counter($start, $stop);
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Answer: C
9. When a class is defined as final it:
A. Can no longer be extended by other classes.
B. Means methods in the class are not over-loadable.
C. Cannot be defined as such, final is only applicable to object methods.
D. Is no longer iteratable.
Answer: A
10. Which parts of the text are matched in the following regular expression?
1
2 $text = <<
4 EOT;
5
6 preg_match_all('@b.n?g@', $text, $matches);
7 ?>
A. bang bong bung
B. bang bonged bung
C. big bang bong bung
D. big bang bung
Answer: C
11. Which of the following can be registered as entry points with a SoapServer instance (choose 3):
A. A single function
B. A single method from a class
C. Multiple functions at once
D. All methods from a class
E. All classes defined in a script
Answer: ACD
12. What DOMElement method should be used to check for availability of a non-namespaced attribute?
A. getAttributeNS()
B. getAttribute()
C. hasAttribute()
D. hasAttributeNS()
Answer: C
13.Which of the following data types is implicitly passed by reference in PHP 5 while it is passed by value in
PHP 4?
A. Class
B. String
C. Object
D. Array
Answer: C
14. What is the content of $c after the following code has executed?
$a = 2;
$b = 3;
$c = ($a++ * ++$b);
A. 0
B. 5
C. 8
D. 4
Answer:
15. Which options do you have in PHP to set the expiry date of a session?
A. Set the session.duration directive in php.ini
B. Set session cookie expiry date locally via session_set_cookie_params()
C. Set session expiry date locally via session_cache_expire()
D. None of the above
Answer: D
16. A script residing at http://example.com/phpcert/cookies.php contains the following code:
1
2 setcookie('name1', 'value1', time() + 60*60*24, '/');
3 setcookie('name1', 'value2');
4 ?>
The web browser is configured to accept all cookies. How many cookies will be set by this script?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Answer: C
17. You analyze the code of a collegue and see, it uses the function strcasecmp. You try it out to see what it
does and use the following function call:
strcasecmp(’hello my dear!’, ‘Hello my DEAR!’);
The function call returns “0″. What does that mean?
A. String 1 is less than string 2.
B. The strings are considered equal.
C. String 2 is less than string 1.
D. The strings have equal length.
Answer: B
18. What is the output of the following script?
1
2 class a
3 {
4 public $val;
5 }
6
7 function renderVal (a $a)
8 {
9 if ($a) {
10 echo $a->val;
11 }
12 }
13
14 renderVal (null);
15 ?>
A. A syntax error in the function declaration line
B. An error, because null is not an instance of ‘a’
C. Nothing, because a null value is being passed to renderVal()
D. NULL
Answer: B
19. REST is a(n) …
A. Web service protocol similar to SOAP with a strict XML schema.
B. Principle to exchange information using XML and HTTP.
C. API to get information from social networking sites.
Answer: B
20. What is the output of the following code?
echo 0×33, ‘ monkeys sit on ‘, 011, ‘ trees.’;
A. 33 monkeys sit on 11 trees.
B. 51 monkeys sit on 9 trees.
C. monkeys sit on trees.
D. 0×33 monkeys sit on 011 trees.
Answer: B
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1. You want to create a light that can be animated along 3D axes but will still keep focus on a specific scene
location while animating.
What should you do?
A. choose Light Settings dialog > Light Type: Spot
B. choose Light Settings dialog > Light Type: Parallel
C. choose Layer > Transform >Auto-Orient > Orient Along Path
D. choose Layer > Transform > Auto-Orient > Orient Towards Point of Interest
Answer: D
2. You want to move a camera along a single axis without moving the Point of Interest. What should you
do?
A. hold down the Shift key while dragging the axis
B. hold down the Alt (Windows) or Option (Mac OS) key while dragging the axis
C. hold down the Ctrl (Windows) or Command (Mac OS) key while dragging the axis
D. hold down the Alt (Windows) + Shift key (Windows) or Option + Shift key (Mac OS) key while dragging
the axis
Answer: C
3. Which statement describes how 3D layers are rendered?
A. 3D layers render layer orientation properties first.
B. 3D layers are rendered according to their z depth value.
C. 3D layers are rendered according to their timeline stacking order.
D. 3D layers are rendered according to the Composition Settings > Rendering Plug-In setting.
Answer: B
4. Which statement about using After Effects OpenGL previewing is true?
A. Layers are limited to 2,000 by 2,000 pixels.
B. OpenGL supports all After Effects blending modes.
C. OpenGL previews are created by using Adaptive Resolution previewing.
D. OpenGL previews are limited only by the amount of installed RAM on the system.
Answer: A
5. You have placed an effect on a 3D layer that has Continuously Rasterize enabled. The layer will NOT
show the effect when casting shadows. What should you do?
A. choose Layer > Pre-compose
B. choose Layer > Preserve Transparency
C. choose Effect > 3D Channel > Depth Matte
D. choose Effect > 3D Channel > 3D Channel Extract
Answer: A
6. You want to slice an image that contains 3D channel information along its z depth values. Which 3D
Channel effect should you use?
A. ID Matte
B. Depth Matte
C. Depth of Field
D. 3D Channel Extract
Answer: B
7. You have selected multiple layers in a composition.
What happens when you choose Animation > Keyframe Assistant > Sequence Layers?
A. All selected layers are moved from their original time positions.
B. The top layer selected in the Timeline window maintains its original time position.
C. The first layer you select in the Timeline window maintains its original time position.
D. The bottom layer selected in the Timeline window maintains its original time position.
Answer: C
8. What happens to the position of layers within a composition when you resize a 320 x 240 composition to
640 x 480?
A. The layers do NOT move.
B. The layers shift according to the anchor setting.
C. The layers shift to the upper-left corner of the composition.
D. The layers shift to the lower-right corner of the composition.
Answer: B
9. You have defined a region of interest in the Composition window. You want to redefine the region of
interest. What should you do?
A. choose View > Look At All Layers
B. choose Composition > Trim Comp to Work Area
C. drag the Region of Interest button into the Composition window and drag the Marquee tool
D. Alt (Windows) or Option (Mac OS) click the Region of Interest button, then drag the marquee in the
Composition window
Answer: D
10. Click the Exhibit button.
The motion path depicted in the exhibit is _____ from A to B and _____ from B to C.
A. faster going; slower
B. slower going; faster
C. accelerating; decelerating
D. decelerating; accelerating
Answer: B
11. Which command should you use to remove a defined area of footage from the Timeline window and
perform a ripple deletion?
A. Edit > Cut
B. Edit > Time Stretch
C. Edit > Lift Work Area
D. Edit > Extract Work Area
Answer: D
12. You want to attach a banner to a moving rectangular area in video footage while simulating 3D. How
should you track the motion?
A. Rotation
B. Rotation and Position
C. Affine Corner Pinning
D. Perspective Corner Pinning
Answer: D
13. Which defines the area in the footage to be tracked when using the Motion Tracking feature?
A. track point
B. attach point
C. search region
D. feature region
Answer: D
14. You have added additional track points to motion footage by using the New Track Point option in the
Tracker Controls palette options menu. Which feature or command can make use of the additional Track
Point data?
A. expressions
B. Track Type > Stabilize
C. Track Type > Perspective corner pin
D. position keyframes set by the Track Motion button
Answer: A
15. Which effects can you apply to a tracked location using the Motion Tracker?
A. keying effects
B. effects with rotation properties
C. effects with position properties
D. effects with text or number properties
Answer: C
16. Which tool should you use to draw a freeform path that will be used as a mask on footage?
A. Pen
B. Brush
C. Ellipse
D. Rectangle
Answer: A
17. Which is an example of a non-drop-frame timecode?
A. 00072
B. 0007+2
C. 4:15:14:07
D. 4;15;14;04
Answer: C
18. You are using Adobe After Effects on the Mac OS. You want to increase the number of frames played
back in RAM preview. What should you do?
A. set the Cache mode to Favor Speed
B. set the Cache mode to Favor Memory
C. increase the Image Cache Size value
D. decrease the Image Cache Size value
Answer: C
19. Which is the default setting for levels in the Audio palette?
A. -96 dB
B. 0 dB
C. 100 dB
D. 120 dB
Answer: B
20.Which After Effects preview option uses the first frame encountered during previewing as a proxy during
previews?
A. Wireframe
B. Adaptive Resolution
C. OpenGL with Static Textures
D. OpenGL with Moving Textures
Answer: C
Free Testking Cisco CCNP 642-357 DCSNS Exam Braindump
Free Testking Cisco CCNP 642-357 DCSNS Exam Braindump, Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the Designing Cisco Storage Network (DCSN) course. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of selecting and integrating Cisco storage products to design a highly scalable, efficient, high performing storage networking solution based on converged architecture. Cisco Storage Networking Design Specialist professionals understand how to utilize and employ the features and benefits of the Cisco MDS 9000 Series Multilayer Directors and Switches, Cisco MDS 9509 Director Switch, Cisco 9216 Fabric Switch, and Cisco MDS 9120 products to create a high availability storage network design.
The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the Remote Access exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. In order to better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.
Perform a needs analysis that identifies the appropriate Storage Networking topology, protocols, and transport to meet customer’s requirements
Identify the interoperability requirements of a customer’s SAN
Design a solution that addresses a customer’s SAN requirements
Design appropriate IP configurations for a SAN solution
1. Which three Fibre Channel switch features are unique to Cisco’s MDS 9000 Series switches? (Choose
three.)
Select 3 response(s).
A. LUN Zoning
B. Read-Only Zones
C. Internet-Switch Link
D. Fibre Channel Congestion Control
E. FC Link Aggregation
F. FSPF
Answer: ABD
2. Which Cisco MDS 9500 Series feature addresses the customer requirement for five nines
(99.999-percent) availability?
Select the best response.
A. active and standby FC line cards
B. virtual output queuing (VOQ)
C. SSM card is installed in the switch
D. nondisruptive software upgrades
E. redundant fan cards
Answer: D
3. Which statement is true concerning the Cisco MDS switch when operating in native interop mode?
Select the best response.
A. The MDS switch can interoperate with Non-MDS switches that are certified by SNIA.
B. The MDS switch can interoperate with Non-MDS switches that support “MDS Native” mode.
C. The MDS switch can interoperate with Non-MDS switches that properly adhere to Fibre Channel switch
standards.
D. The MDS switch cannot interoperate with Non-MDS switches.
Answer: C
4. Which are two characteristics of the Cisco MDS Series fan modules? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. Supervisor modules shut down the fan modules when the air temperature is below a preset threshold.
B. If the Fan Status LED turns red, a fan has failed and the module must be replaced.
C. Fan modules monitor air temperature and shut down if the temperature exceeds a preset threshold.
D. Fan modules do not require the switch to be powered off in order to be replaced.
Answer: BD
5. Your customer has implemented an IPS-8 for FCIP connectivity to remote sites. How can this customer
prevent unauthorized hosts from connecting to the Cisco MDS 9000 fabric through the FCIP interfaces?
Select the best response.
A. Configure RADIUS authentication
B. Configure IPSec encryption on the IPS-8
C. Configure IP ACLs on the IPS-8
D. Configure fabric binding on the IPS-8
Answer: C
6. What are two ways of preventing unauthorized hosts from connecting to the management interface of a
Cisco MDS 9000 Family switch? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. use SNMPv3 only
B. configure IP ACLs
C. configure management VSANs
D. use digital certificates
E. implement RBAC
Answer: BD
7. Your customer has implemented an IPS-8 for iSCSI connectivity to workgroup servers. How can this
customer prevent unauthorized hosts from connecting to the Cisco MDS 9000 fabric through the iSCSI
interfaces?
Select the best response.
A. Configure RADIUS authentication
B. Configure IPSec encryption on the IPS-8
C. Configure IP ACLs on the IPS-8
D. Configure fabric binding on the IPS-8
Answer: C
8. What is the principal cost advantage of a collapsed core SAN design compared to a core-edge design if
each connects the same number of host and storage ports?
Select the best response.
A. fewer hops for a given exchange
B. fewer long-wave SFPs
C. fewer ISL connections
D. fewer domains on the domain list
E. fewer director-class switches
Answer: C
9. What is the best mechanism to use to isolate backup traffic from other mission-critical traffic?
Select the best response.
A. VSANs
B. zones
C. QoS
D. IVR
Answer: A
10. Which of these provides fabric-based virtualization for multiple independent software vendors?
Select the best response.
A. Storage Services Module (SSM)
B. Cisco MDS 9000 32-port 1/2-Gbps Fibre Channel module
C. Multiprotocol Services module
D. Cisco MDS 9513 Supervisor 2
Answer: A
1. Which three Fibre Channel switch features are unique to Cisco’s MDS 9000 Series switches? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).
A. LUN Zoning
B. Read-Only Zones
C. Internet-Switch Link
D. Fibre Channel Congestion Control
E. FC Link Aggregation
F. FSPF
Answer: ABD
2. Your customer has implemented an IPS-8 for FCIP connectivity to remote sites. How can this customer prevent unauthorized hosts from connecting to the Cisco MDS 9000 fabric through the FCIP interfaces?
Select the best response.
A. Configure RADIUS authentication
B. Configure IPSec encryption on the IPS-8
C. Configure IP ACLs on the IPS-8
D. Configure fabric binding on the IPS-8
Answer: C
3. Which statement is true concerning the Cisco MDS switch when operating in native interop mode?
Select the best response.
A. The MDS switch can interoperate with Non-MDS switches that are certified by SNIA.
B. The MDS switch can interoperate with Non-MDS switches that support “MDS Native” mode.
C. The MDS switch can interoperate with Non-MDS switches that properly adhere to Fibre Channel switch standards.
D. The MDS switch cannot interoperate with Non-MDS switches.
Answer: C
4. Which are two characteristics of the Cisco MDS Series fan modules? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. Supervisor modules shut down the fan modules when the air temperature is below a preset threshold.
B. If the Fan Status LED turns red, a fan has failed and the module must be replaced.
C. Fan modules monitor air temperature and shut down if the temperature exceeds a preset threshold.
D. Fan modules do not require the switch to be powered off in order to be replaced.
Answer: BD
5. Which Cisco MDS 9500 Series feature addresses the customer requirement for five nines (99.999-percent) availability?
Select the best response.
A. active and standby FC line cards
B. virtual output queuing (VOQ)
C. SSM card is installed in the switch
D. nondisruptive software upgrades
E. redundant fan cards
Answer: D
Free Testking Cisco Data Center 642-359 ICSNS Exam Braindump
Free Testking Cisco Data Center 642-359 ICSNS Exam Braindump, 642-359 Exam name: Specialist – Interaction Center/ Operational Analyst Design and Implement Exam. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the ICSN Implementing Cisco Storage Network and ICASN Implementing Cisco Advanced Storage Network course/s. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of The Cisco Storage Networking Solutions Support Specialist validates an individual’s knowledge of installing, configuring, and troubleshooting Cisco storage products to maintain a highly scalable, efficient, high performing storage networking environment. Cisco Storage Networking Support Specialist professionals understand how to deploy and optimize the features and benefits of the Cisco MDS 9000 Series Multilayer Directors and Switches, Cisco MDS 9509 Director Switch, Cisco 9216 Fabric Switch, and Cisco MDS 9120 products to provide fast and accurate resolution to network installation and customer service issues.. Topics covered include implementing appropriate IP configurations, Installing a Cisco Storage Solution, Implementing Cisco Storage equipment in multi-vendor multiprotocol environments, Implement the fabric design from the design document, Configuring security in a multiprotocol storage environment, Analyzing and tuning customer configurations to optimize application performance in multiprotocol storage networks and Troubleshooting SAN infrastructure.
The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the Remote Access exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. In order to better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.
Implement appropriate IP configurations
Install a Cisco Storage Solution
Implement Cisco Storage equipment in multi-vender multiprotocol environments
Implement the fabric design from the design document
Analyze and tune customer configurations to optimize application performance in multiprotocol storage networks
Troubleshoot SAN infrastructure
1. While examining the output of a show run command on the Cisco MDS 9000 Series, you notice that the
statement interface GigabitEthernet2/1.2 appears in the output. What does this mean?
A. It refers to the second FCIP tunnel that is configured on port GigabitEthernet2/1.
B. It refers to a VLAN subinterface on port GigabitEthernet2/1.
C. It means that port GigabitEthernet2/1 is assigned to VSAN 2.
D. It is a mistake in the interface configuration.
Answer: B
2. The HBA on your storage server only supports the NL_Port mode. Which interface type on the Cisco
MDS 9000 Series fabric switches can support this HBA?
A. F
B. TE
C. FL
D. N
E. E
Answer: C
3. For purposes of granting restricted access to statically configure iSCSI virtual targets, which three of
these can be used to identify iSCSI initiators? (Choose three.)
A. iSCSI node name
B. host name
C. IPv4 address and subnet
D. MAC address
E. IPv6 address
F. iSCSI WWN
Answer: ACE
4. What is a benefit of enhanced zoning?
A. fabric locked during configuration changes
B. larger zoning database size
C. database rollback in case of failure
D. zones allowed to span VSANs
Answer: A
5. How many ports are addressable on a fabric arbitrated loop?
A. 126
B. 127
C. 255
D. 256
Answer: B
6. Which three of the following are possible reasons why a line card module does not come online?
(Choose three.)
A. Port indexes have been taken offline.
B. Available port indexes are noncontiguous.
C. Not enough power is available in the chassis.
D. An invalid interoperability mode has been configured.
E. Unsupported SFPs have been installed.
F. Not enough port indexes are available.
Answer: BCF
7. Which of the following tools would you use to view SCSI error count statistics?
A. Cisco Performance Manager
B. RMON
C. Cisco Traffic Analyzer
D. Cisco Fabric Analyzer
Answer: C
8. Why would you use the fcanalyzer command?
A. to ensure that Fibre Channel configuration settings are synchronized across all switches in the fabric
B. to identify common configuration errors in the fabric
C. to nondisruptively capture and decode Fibre Channel control frames
D. to decode and analyze Fibre Channel frames and ordered sets on a link
Answer: C
9. Which two features help you verify connectivity between host and storage devices? (Choose two.)
A. fcanalyzer
B. Cisco Traffic Analyzer
C. End-to-End Connectivity Analysis
D. Zone Merge Analysis
E. fcping
Answer: CE
10. Which feature detects hardware faults and attempts recovery actions?
A. Switch Health Analysis
B. Fabric Configuration Analysis
C. Online Health Management System
D. End-to-End Connectivity Analysis
E. Cisco Fabric Services
Answer: C
Free Testking Microsoft MCTS 70-646 PRO Exam Braindump
Free Testking Microsoft MCTS 70-646 PRO Exam Braindump, 70-646 PRO: Windows Server 2008, Server Administrator Updated: August 4, 2008. The Microsoft Certified Professional (PRO) exam, Exam 70-646: PRO: Windows Server 2008, Server Administrator, became available in April 2008. This exam is available in English, Chinese (Simplified), Chinese (Traditional), French, German, Italian, Korean, Portuguese (Brazil), Russian, and Spanish.
A server administrator is responsible for the operations and day-to-day management of an infrastructure of servers for an enterprise organization. Windows server administrators manage the infrastructure, Web, and IT application servers. The Windows server administrators use scripts and batch files written by others or those that they occasionally write themselves to accomplish tasks on a regular basis. They conduct most server management tasks remotely by using Terminal Server or administration tools installed on their local workstation. A server administrator’s primary tasks include:
• Managing the server operating system, file, and directory services
• Software distribution and updates
• Profiling and monitoring assigned servers
• Troubleshooting
When you pass Exam 70-646: PRO: Windows Server 2008, Server Administrator, you earn credit toward the following certification:
• Microsoft Certified IT Professional (MCITP): Server Administrator
Preparation tools and resources
To help you prepare for this exam, Microsoft Learning recommends that you have hands-on experience with the product and that you use the following training resources. These training resources do not necessarily cover all of the topics listed in the “Skills measured” section.
Classroom training Microsoft E-Learning Microsoft Press books Practice tests
Course 6430: Planning and Administering Windows Server 2008 Servers
Collection 7245: Updating Your Windows Server 2003 Server Administrator Skills to Windows Server 2008 (16 hours; available August 2008)
Collection PRO SA 1: Implementing Windows Server 2008 Server Administration (available November 2008)
Collection PRO SA 2: Maintaining and Troubleshooting Windows Server 2008 Server Administration (available November 2008)
MCITP Self-Paced Training Kit (Exam 70-646): Windows Server 2008 Administrator
Microsoft online resources
• Windows Server 2008 – Learning Portal: Find special offers and information on training and certification.
• Product information: Visit the Windows Server 2008 Web site for detailed technology information.
• TechNet: Designed for IT professionals, this site includes how-to instructions, best practices, downloads, technical resources, newsgroups, and chats.
• MSDN: Designed for developers, the Microsoft Developer Network (MSDN) features code samples, technical articles, downloads, newsgroups, and chats.
• Microsoft Learning Community: Join newsgroups and visit community forums to connect with your peers for suggestions on training resources and advice on your certification path and studies.
Skills measured
This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed in the following table. The percentages indicate the relative weight of each major topic area on the exam
Skills measured by Exam 70-646
Planning for Server Deployment (19 percent)
Plan server installations and upgrades.
May include but is not limited to: Windows Server 2008 edition selection, rollback planning, Bitlocker implementation requirements
Plan for automated server deployment.
May include but is not limited to: standard server image, automation and scheduling of server deployments
Plan infrastructure services server roles.
May include but is not limited to: address assignment, name resolution, network access control, directory services, application services, certificate services
Plan application servers and services.
May include but is not limited to: virtualization server planning, availability, resilience, and accessibility
Plan file and print server roles.
May include but is not limited to: access permissions, storage quotas, replication, indexing, file storage policy, availability, printer publishing
Planning for Server Management (23 percent)
Plan server management strategies.
May include but is not limited to: remote administration, remote desktop, server management technologies, Server Manager and ServerManagerCMD, delegation policies and procedures
Plan for delegated administration.
May include but is not limited to: delegate authority, delegate Active Directory objects, application management
Plan and implement group policy strategy.
May include but is not limited to: GPO management, GPO backup and recovery, group policy troubleshooting, group policy planning
Monitoring and Maintaining Servers (20 percent)
Implement patch management strategy.
May include but is not limited to: operating system patch level maintenance, Windows Server Update Services (WSUS), application patch level maintenance
Monitor servers for performance evaluation and optimization.
May include but is not limited to: server and service monitoring, optimization, event management, trending and baseline analysis
Monitor and maintain security and policies.
May include but is not limited to: remote access, monitor and maintain NPAS, network access, server security, firewall rules and policies, authentication and authorization, data security, auditing
Planning Application and Data Provisioning (19 percent)
Provision applications.
May include but is not limited to: presentation virtualization, terminal server infrastructure, resource allocation, application virtualization alternatives, application deployment, System Center Configuration Manager
Provision data.
May include but is not limited to: shared resources, offline data access
Planning for Business Continuity and High Availability (19 percent)
Plan storage.
May include but is not limited to: storage solutions, storage management
Plan high availability.
May include but is not limited to: service redundancy, service availability
Plan for backup and recovery.
May include but is not limited to: data recovery strategy, server recovery strategy, directory service recovery strategy, object level recovery
1. Your network consists of a single Active Directory domain. All domain controllers run Windows Server
2008. All client computers run Windows Vista. You need to ensure that administrators are allowed to
install USB drives on their computers. You must prevent non-administrative users from installing USB
drives on their computers. What should you do?
A. Implement Windows BitLocker Drive Encryption (BitLocker).
B. Implement the Universal Description, Discovery, and Integration (UDDI) Services server role.
C. Use a Group Policy object (GPO) to configure device installation restrictions.
D. Use Windows Server Resource Manager (WSRM) to configure a per user resource access policy.
Answer: C
2. Your network consists of a single Active Directory forest that contains a root domain and two child
domains. All servers run Windows Server 2008.
A corporate policy has the following requirements.
All local guest accounts must be renamed and disabled.
All local administrator accounts must be renamed.
You need to recommend a solution that meets the requirements of the corporate policy.
What should you recommend?
A. Implement a Group Policy object (GPO) for each domain.
B. Implement a Group Policy object (GPO) for the root domain.
C. Deploy Network Policy and Access Services (NPAS) on all domain controllers in each domain.
D. Deploy Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS) on the root domain controllers.
Answer: A
3. Your network consists of a single Active Directory forest. The forest contains three domains named
contoso.com, region1. contoso.com, and region2. contoso.com. The functional level of the three domains is
Windows Server 2008.
In contoso.com, employees from the helpdesk team are members of the Account Operators group. The
helpdesk employees are responsible for modifying the properties of user objects in contoso.com.
Employees frequently join and leave the helpdesk team.
You need to implement a solution for managing user accounts that meets the following requirements.
Enables the helpdesk employees to manage the user objects in all domains
Minimizes the administrative effort required to manage the frequent changes to the helpdesk staff
What should you do?
A. Assign Full Control permissions to the Account Operators group in contoso.com for user accounts in all
three domains.
B. Add the helpdesk user accounts to the Account Operators group in region1. contoso.com and to the
Account Operators group in region2. contoso.com.
C. Create a new global group in contoso.com named Helpdesk-group. Add the helpdesk user accounts to
Helpdesk-group. Add Helpdesk-group to the Account Operators group that is in all three domains.
D. Create a new global group in contoso.com named Helpdesk-group. Add the helpdesk user accounts to
Helpdesk-group. Add Helpdesk-group to the Accounts Operators group that is on every member server in
all three domains.
Answer: C
4. Your network contains 50 DNS servers that run Windows Server 2003. One of the DNS servers is
named Server1. Server1 has Adminpak.msi installed. Administrators use client computers that run
Windows Vista. The administrators manage the DNS servers by using a Remote Desktop Connection (RDC)
to connect to Server1. You replace the 50 DNS servers with new servers that run the Server Core
installation of Windows Server 2008. The Windows Server Core servers have the DNS server role
installed. You need to plan for the administration of the new DNS servers. The administrators must manage
the DNS server role by using a Microsoft Management Console (MMC). What should you include in your
plan?
A. Deploy Windows PowerShell to all administrators by using a Group Policy.
B. Deploy the Windows Server 2003 Adminpak.msi file to all administrators by using a Group Policy.
C. Provide remote access to the Windows Server 2008 Server Core servers.
D. Provide remote access to a Windows Server 2008 server that has the Remote Server Administration
Tools (RSAT) installed.
Answer: D
5. Your network consists of a single Active Directory domain. The network includes a branch office named Branch1. Branch1 contains a member server named Server1. Server1 runs Windows Server 2008 and
has the File Services server role installed. An organizational unit (OU) named Branch1-Servers contains
the computer objects for the servers in Branch1. A global group named Branch1?admins contains the
user accounts for the administrators. Administrators manage the shared folders on the servers in Branch1.
You need to ensure that the members of Branch1-admins can create shared folders on Server1. What
should you do?
A. Add the Branch1-admins group to the Power Users local group on Server1.
B. Add the Branch1-admins group to the Administrators local group on Server1.
C. Assign Full Control permissions on the Branch1-Servers OU to the Branch1-admins group.
D. Assign Create Shared Folders permissions on the Branch1-Servers OU to the Branch1-admins group.
Answer: B
6. Your network consists of a single Active Directory domain. The relevant portion of the Active Directory
domain is configured as shown in the following diagram.
The Staff organizational unit (OU) contains all user accounts except for the managers user accounts. The
Managers OU contains the managers user accounts and the following global groups.
Sales
Finance
Engineering
You create a new Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1, and then link it to the Employees OU.
Users from the Engineering global group report that they are unable to access the Run command on the Start menu. You discover that the GPO1 settings are causing the issue.
You need to ensure that the users from the Engineering global group are able to access the Run command
on the Start menu.
What should you do?
A. Configure GPO1 to use the Enforce Policy option.
B. Configure Block Policy Inheritance on the Managers OU.
C. Configure Group Policy filtering on GPO1 for the Engineering global group.
D. Create a new child OU named Engineering under the Employees OU. Move the Engineering global
group to the new Engineering child OU.
Answer: C
7. Your network consists of a single Active Directory domain. You need to ensure that support technicians
can create Group Policy objects (GPOs) in the domain. You must give the support technicians a GPO that
contains the preconfigured settings that will be used to create new GPOs. What should you do?
A. Assign permissions on the Sysvol folder. Create a new Starter GPO.
B. Add the support technicians to the Group Policy Creator Owners group. Create a new Starter GPO.
C. Add the support technicians to the Account Operators group. Delegate control on the Users container.
Create an ADML file.
D. Add the support technicians to the Account Operators group. Delegate control on the Domain Controllers
organizational unit (OU). Create an ADMX file.
Answer: B
8. Your network consists of a single Active Directory domain. The functional level of the domain is Windows
Server 2008. The domain contains 200 Windows Server 2008 servers.
You need to plan a monitoring solution that meets the following requirements.
Sends a notification by e-mail to the administrator if an application error occurs on any of the servers
Uses the minimum amount of administrative effort
What should you include in your plan?
A. On one server, create event subscriptions for each server. On the server, attach tasks to the application
error events.
B. On one server, create an Event Trace Sessions Data Collector Set. On all servers, create a System
Performance Data Collector Set.
C. On all servers, create event subscriptions for one server. On all servers, attach a task for the application
error events.
D. On all servers, create a System Performance Data Collector Set. On one server, configure the report
settings for the new Data Collector set.
Answer: A
9. Your company has a main office and a branch office. All domain administrators are located in the main
office. Two support technicians are located in the branch office.
You plan to deploy a new Windows Server 2008 server in the branch office.
You need to plan for the management of the new Windows Server 2008 server. Your plan must meet the
following requirements.
Allow the support technicians to install server roles
Allow the support technicians to stop and start services
Minimize the security privileges granted to the support technicians
What should you include in your plan?
A. Add the support technicians to the Domain Admins group.
B. Assign the support technicians to the Administrators group on the new Windows Server 2008 server.
C. Configure the restricted enrollment agent on the new Windows Server 2008 server. Create a
permissions list for the support technicians.
D. Place the new Windows Server 2008 server in a new organizational unit (OU). Assign the support
technicians permission to modify objects in the new OU.
Answer: B
10. Your network consists of a single Active Directory domain. The domain contains an organizational unit
(OU) named Employees that contains all user accounts. The domain contains a global group named HR
Admins.
You need to plan for the delegation of administrative authority to meet the following requirements.
Allow HR Admins to create user accounts in the Employees OU.
Allow HR Admins to change the address attributes, the telephone number attributes, and the location
attributes for existing user accounts.
Prevent HR Admins from resetting the passwords for existing user accounts.
What should you include in your plan?
A. Move the HR Admins group to the Domain Controllers OU.
B. Add the HR Admins group to the Account Operators group.
C. Run the Delegation of Control Wizard on the Employees OU.
D. Create an OU named HR. Move the HR Admins group into the HR OU. Run the Delegation of Control
Wizard on the HR OU.
Answer: C
11. Your network contains five Windows Server 2008 servers that have Terminal Services installed.
You plan to establish a Terminal Services server farm.
You need to ensure that the server farm meets the following requirements.
New users automatically connect to the terminal server that has the fewest active sessions.
Disconnected users are redirected to the server that contains their previous session.
What should you implement?
A. Network Load Balancing (NLB)
B. Round-robin DNS
C. Terminal Services Gateway (TS Gateway)
D. Terminal Services Session Broker (TS Session Broker)
Answer: D
12. Your network contains a server that runs Windows Server 2008 and that functions as a file server. All
client computers are laptop computers that run Windows Vista. The network is not connected to the Internet.
Users in the organization save files that they want to share to a shared folder on the server. You need to
recommend a solution that allows users to access the shared files when they are disconnected from the
corporate network. What should you recommend?
A. Configure caching on the shared folder.
B. Implement Windows SharePoint Services 3. 0.
C. Install the Background Intelligent Transfer Service (BITS) server extensions.
D. Configure the Distributed File System (DFS) role service to host the shared folder.
Answer: A
13. Your network consists of a single Active Directory domain. All domain controllers run Windows Server
2008. There are five Windows Server 2003 servers that have the Terminal Server component installed. A
firewall server runs Microsoft Internet Security and Acceleration (ISA) Server 2006.
You need to create a remote access strategy for the terminal servers that meets the following requirements.
Restricts access to specific users
Minimizes the number of open ports on the firewall
Encrypts all remote connections to the terminal servers
What should you do?
A. Implement SSL bridging on the ISA Server. Require authentication on all inbound connections to the ISA
Server.
B. Implement port forwarding on the ISA Server. Require authentication on all inbound connections to the
ISA Server.
C. Upgrade a Windows Server 2003 server to Windows Server 2008. On the Windows Server 2008 server,
implement the Terminal Services Gateway (TS Gateway) role, and configure a Terminal Services resource
authorization policy (TS RAP).
D. Upgrade a Windows Server 2003 server to Windows Server 2008. On the Windows Server 2008 server,
implement the Terminal Services Gateway (TS Gateway) role, and configure a Terminal Services
connection authorization policy (TS CAP).
Answer: D
14. Your network consists of a single Active Directory forest. The network contains a server that runs
Windows Server 2008 named Server1. Server1 has the File Server role installed.
Users from the sales department use portable computers that run Windows Vista Business Edition. Users
from the sales department work from the office and from remote locations.
You need to design a data storage solution that meets the following requirements.
Users must be able to choose the documents that will be available when they are away from the
network.
Your solution must minimize the number of documents that are stored on users’ portable computers.
Your solution must minimize the time it takes for users to log on to the network.
What should you include in your design?
A. Configure offline files and enable manual caching.
B. Configure offline files and enable automatic caching.
C. Use local profiles and implement folder redirection.
D. Deploy roaming profiles and implement folder redirection.
Answer: A
15. Your company has a main office and two branch offices. Each office has a domain controller and file
servers. Your network consists of a single Active Directory domain. All servers run Windows Server 2008.
You need to plan the deployment of Distributed File System (DFS) to meet the following requirements.
Ensure that users see only the folders to which they have access
Ensure that users can access the data locally
Minimize the bandwidth required to replicate data
What should you include in your plan?
A. Deploy a stand-alone DFS namespace. Enable access-based enumeration and use DFS Replication.
B. Deploy a stand-alone DFS namespace. Enable access-based enumeration and use File Replication
Service (FRS).
C. Deploy a domain-based DFS namespace and use DFS Replication. Modify each share to be a hidden
share.
D. Deploy a domain-based DFS namespace and use File Replication Service (FRS). Modify each share to
be a hidden share.
Answer: A
1. Your organization has a computer with a Core 2 Duo processor that has the 32-bit Windows Server 2003 R2 Standard Edition operating system installed. Which of the following versions of Windows Server 2008 can this computer be upgraded to?
A. 32-bit version of Windows Server 2008 Standard Edition
B. 64-bit version of Windows Server 2008 Standard Edition
C. 32-bit version of Windows Server 2008 Datacenter Edition
D. 64-bit version of Windows Server 2008 Enterprise Edition
Answer: A
2. You are a Windows Server 2008 professional who has two years experience in using Windows Server 2008. You also have experience in using Windows Vista and the Windows server system. Your routine job is responsible for the server builds and configuration. Currently you are employed as a sever administrator in an international company which is named Wiikigo. You are in charge of the company network and provide technical support for your company. There are 10 Windows Server 2008 servers with Terminal Services installed contained in the company network. Now you receive an order from the CIO, you are asked to make a plan establishing a Terminal Services server farm. According to the requirement of the CIO, when you try to achieve this, not only the terminal server with the fewest active sessions can be connected by the new users automatically, but also the server with their previous session contained can redirect the disconnected users. To accomplish
this task, what action should be performed?
A. Round-robin DNS would be implemented to accomplish this task.
B. Terminal Services Gateway (TS Gateway) would be implemented to accomplish this task.
C. Terminal Services Session Broker (TS Session Broker) would be implemented to accomplish this task.
D. Network Load Balancing (NLB) would be implemented to accomplish this task.
Answer: C
3. You are a Windows Server 2008 professional who has two years experience in using Windows Server 2008. You also have experience in using Windows Vista and the Windows server system. Your routine job is responsible for the server builds and configuration. Currently you are employed as a sever administrator in an international company which is named Wiikigo. You are in charge of the company network and provide technical support for your company. There is a head office and a branch office in your company. The head office has all domain administrators while the branch office has two support technicians. Now you receive an order from the Company CIO, you are asked to make a plan for the deployment of a new Windows Server 2008 server in the branch office. According to the requirement of the CIO, when you try to achieve this, the support technicians should be allowed to install server roles and to stop and start services. What is more, you must use as
little security privileges granted to the support technicians as possible. Of the following options, what should be included in your plan?
A. In your plan, the restricted enrollment agent would be configured on the new Windows Server 2008 server and a permissions list would be created for the support technicians.
B. In your plan, the new Windows Server 2008 server would be placed in a new organizational unit (OU) and the support technicians permission would be assigned to modify objects in the new OU.
C. In your plan, the restricted enrollment agent would be configured on the new Windows Server 2008 server and the support technicians permission would be assigned to modify objects in the new OU.
D. In your plan, the support technicians would be added to the Domain Admins group.
E. In your plan, the support technicians would be assigned to the Administrators group on the new Windows Server 2008 server.
Answer: E
4. What new feature in Windows Server 2008 DFS allows users to see only files and folders on a file server that they have permission to access?
A. File screen
B. Access-based enumeration
C. Soft quota
D. Folder target
Answer: B
5. You are a Windows Server 2008 professional who has two years experience in using Windows Server 2008. You also have experience in using Windows Vista and the Windows server system. Your routine job is responsible for the server builds and configuration. Currently you are employed as a sever administrator in an international company which is named Wiikigo. You are in charge of the company network and provide technical support for your company. There is a single Active Directory domain in the company network. Now you receive an order form your manager, you are asked to make sure that in the domain, Group Policy objects (GPOs) can be created by support technicians. New GPOs will be created by using preconfigured settings. To create (GPOs), the support technicians must be provided with a GPO with the preconfigured settings contained. What action shouldd be performed to achieve this goal?
A. Before creating a new Starter GPO, the support technicians should be added to the Account Operators group.
B. Before creating a new Starter GPO, permissions should be assigned on the Sysvol folder.
C. Before creating a new Starter GPO, the support technicians should be added to the Group Policy Creator Owners group.
D. Before creating an ADML file, the support technicians should be added to the Account Operators group and control on the Users container should be delegated.
E: Before creating an ADML file, the support technicians should be added to the Account Operators group and control on the Domain Controllers organizational unit (OU) should be
delegated.
Answer: C
Free Testking Microsoft TS 70-638 Exam Braindump
Free Testking Microsoft TS 70-638 Exam Braindump, microsoft ts 70-638 Exam TS: MS Office Communications Server 2007, Configuring.
Exam 70-638: TS: Microsoft Office Communications Server 2007, Configuring became available in October 2007. This Microsoft Technology Specialist (TS) exam is available in English, French, German, Japanese, and Spanish.
When you pass Exam 70-638: TS: Microsoft Office Communications Server 2007, Configuring, you complete the requirements for the following certification:
• Microsoft Certified Technology Specialist (MCTS): Office Communications Server 2007, Configuration
Exam 70-638 also earns credit as an elective exam toward the following certifications:
• Microsoft Certified Systems Administrator (MCSA) on Windows Server 2003
• Microsoft Certified Systems Engineer (MCSE) on Windows Server 2003
• Microsoft Certified Systems Administrator (MCSA) on Microsoft Windows 2000 Server
• Microsoft Certified Systems Engineer (MCSE) on Microsoft Windows 2000 Server
Microsoft online resources
• Microsoft Office Communications Server 2007 – Learning Portal: Find special offers and information on training and certification.
• Product information: Visit the Microsoft Office Communications Server 2007 Web site for detailed product information.
• TechNet: Designed for IT professionals, this site includes how-to instructions, best practices, downloads, technical resources, newsgroups, and chats.
• MSDN: Designed for developers, the Microsoft Developer Network (MSDN) features code samples, technical articles, downloads, newsgroups, and chats.
• Microsoft Learning Community: Join newsgroups and visit community forums to connect with peers for suggestions on training resources and advice on your certification path and studies
Skills measured by Exam 70-638
Installing and Managing Office Communications Server (OCS) 2007 (20 percent)
Determine the differences between the Standard Edition and the Enterprise Edition.
Prepare the environment for OCS 2007.
Request and configure certificates.
Configure address book service.
Manage coexistence between Microsoft Office Live Communications Server 2005 and OCS 2007.
Configure security features.
Deploying and Configuring OCS 2007 Clients (19 percent)
Deploy and configure Office Communicator 2007 clients.
Donwload Free PassGuide Braindumps-The Most Realistic Practice Questions and Answers,Help You Pass certification exams
Deploy and configure Communicator Web Access 2007.
Deploy and configure the Microsoft Office Live Meeting 2007 client.
Manage Office Communicator client migration.
Configuring Conferencing (15 percent)
Configure the A/V Conferencing Server.
Configure the Web Conferencing Server.
Configure the Conferencing Server policy settings.
Configure external conferencing access.
Configuring Enterprise Voice Functionality (14 percent)
Configure outbound routing.
Configure location profiles.
Configure phone number normalization.
Configure the Mediation Server.
Configure PC-based audio peripherals.
Configuring External Connectivity (18 percent)
Configure the Edge Server.
Configure Public IM Connectivity (PIC).
Configure federation.
Configure remote user access.
Monitoring and Maintaining OCS 2007 (14 percent)
Monitor server resource utilization.
Isolate issues related to OCS 2007.
Back up and restore OCS 2007.
Configure event logging.
Install and configure IM archiving.
Install and configure Meeting Compliance
1. You work as an administrator in an international communication company which is called Wiikigo corp.
You are in charge of he network of your company. Your company server has Office Communications
Server 2007 deployed. You company has installed Windows Server 2008 on all the Office Communications
Server 2007 servers. You configure Office Communications Server 2007, make it block unsolicited instant
messages. Now you have to configure Office Communications Server 2007, make it be able to capture
logging information for URLs that are blocked. What action should you perform to achieve this?
A. You should start a new debug session in the Office Communications Server 2007 Logging Tool, the
debug session monitors the InboundRouting component.
B. You should use the Office Communications Server 2007 Intelligent IM Filter to configure URL filtering.
C. In Event Viewer, a subscription should be created.
D. You should start a new debug session in the Office Communications Server 2007 Logging Tool, the
debug session monitors the IIMFilter component.
Answer: D
2. You work as an administrator in an international communication company which is called Wiikigo corp.
You are in charge of the network of your company. Your company server has Office Communications
Server 2007 deployed. Remote users are downloading Office Live Meeting content, but they receive error
messages and fail. As the technical support, you have to solve this problem, making them be able to
download Office Live Meeting content. What should you do?
A. You should configure a reverse proxy in the perimeter network.
B. You should change the default meeting policy for the user pool.
C. You should enable meeting compliance on the Access Edge server.
D. You should configure the Access Edge server with a commercial certificate.
Answer:A
3. You work as an administrator in an international communication company which is called Wiikigo corp.
You are in charge of the network of your company. Your company server has Office Communications
Server 2007 deployed. There’s a company named PutitansQueen which is a partner of your company. The
PutitansQueen Company also runs Office Communications Server 2007. Now your company manger wants that instant messages and presence information can be exchanged internally and with the partner
company only. The manager assigns this task to you. So you have to configure Office Communications
Server 2007 to perform this. How can you achieve this?
A. The partner company should be added as a trusted federated partner.
B. You should disable the option to federate with other domains.
C. You should enable enhanced presence for all users.
D. You should enable automatic discovery of federated partners.
Answer:A
4. You work as an administrator in an international communication company which is called Wiikigo corp.
You are in charge of the network of your company. Your company server has Office Communications
Server 2007 deployed. Your company plans to enable public instant messaging (IM) connectivity for
employees. You have two servers, one is Front-End server and the other one is Access Edge server. On
both servers you install commercial certificates. You activate the service for each provider. Employees are
able to communicate with each other, but they cannot view presence status or communicate with any users
on the public IM networks. Now according to the business requirement, users must be able to communicate
with public IM users. As an technical support, you must achieve this for the employees. So what should you
do? (choose more than one)
A. You should enable enhanced presence.
B. A public DNS A record should be created for your Access Edge server.
C. An internal DNS A record should be created for your Front-End server.
D. An internal DNS SRV record should be created. The record points to your Front-End server.
E. A public DNS SRV record should be created. The record points to your Access Edge server.
Answer: BE
5. You work as an administrator in an international communication company which is called Wiikigo corp.
You are in charge of the network of your company. Your company server has Office Communications
Server 2007 R2 deployed. There are two domains repectively named wiikigo.com and corp.wiikigo.com.
You register the two domains with the public instant messaging connectivity program. You’re notified that
the configuration is complete. On the Access Edge server external interface, you install a wildcard public certificate named *.wiikigo.com. Employees in both domains are able to log in to Office Communications
Server 2007 R2 remotely, besides this, they can exchange instant messages with external federated users.
The IM conversations fail when employees try to communicate with public instant messaging (IM) contacts.
You must solve this issue making employees be able to communicate with public IM users.
So what should you do?
A. You should increase the Maximum number of server connections setting.
B. You should replace the *.wiikigo.com certificate with a certificate which includes sip.wiikigo.com and
sip.corp.wiikigo.com.
C. You should replace the *.wiikigo.com certificate with a wildcard certificate from an approved certification
authority.
D. You should choose the Allow all communication from this provider option for all IM service providers.
Answer: B
6. You work as an administrator in an international communication company which is called Wiikigo corp.
You are in charge of the network of your company. Your company server has Office Communications
Server 2007 deployed. And there is an Access Edge server in your company. Now you receive a report from
users of external networks, they complain that they fail to sign in to Office Communications Server 2007.
You check and find it is the case. As a technical support, you have to solve this problem. So what should
you do?
A. You should enable enhanced federation on the Access Edge server.
B. You should enable public instant messaging connectivity on the Access Edge server.
C. You should permit remote user access to your network on the Access Edge server.
D. You should change the dial-in settings on the user accounts in Active Directory Domain Services.
Answer: C
7. You work as an administrator in an international communication company which is called Wiikigo corp.
You are in charge of the network of your company. Your company server has Office Communications
Server 2007 deployed. There?010043010054s another company named PuritansQueen which has
business with your company. According to the company requirement, you configure automatic discovery of
federated partners. Users from PuritansQueen often send instant messages to users of your company, but you get a report saying that they cannot receive all of the messages. As a technical support, you have to
check and solve this issue. After your check, you find that your Access Edge servers are allowing only one
message per second to be received from the PuritansQueen. You must make users be able to receive all
the instant messages. So what should you do?
A. The federated partner should be added to the Allow list.
B. You should enable enhanced presence for all user accounts.
C. You should turn off automatic discovery of federated partners.
D. You should make the PuritansQueen add your company to its Allow list.
Answer:A
8. You work as an administrator in an international communication company which is called Wiikigo corp.
You are in charge of the network of your company. Your company server has Office Communications
Server 2007 deployed. The Active Directory domain of the company is wiikigo.com. There’s a Standard
Edition Front-End server and an HTTP reverse proxy. Now you’re performing the deployment of an Access
Edge server. Remote users want to be able to download meeting content. You must make sure of this. So
what should you do?
A. You should publish the https://ocs.wiikigo.com/etc/place/null URL with a reverse proxy.
B. You should publish the https://ocs.wiikigo.com/ABS/ext URL with a reverse proxy.
C. You should publish the Web Conferencing server on port 443 with a reverse proxy.
D. You should enable remote access on Office Communications Server 2007 for the remote users.
Answer:A
9. You work as an administrator in an international communication company which is called Wiikigo corp.
You are in charge of the network of your company. Your company server has Office Communications
Server 2007 deployed. The internal domain name is corp.wiikigo.com, and the session initiation protocol
(SIP) namespace is wiikigo.com. Employees can receive communications from external users if their user
accounts are in the wiikigo.com SIP namespace, but they cannot reply. As a technical support, you must
make sure that employees can communicate with external users. So what should you do?
A. You should add wiikigo.com to the Domain list on the Allow tab of the Access Edge server Properties
dialog box.
B. You should add wiikigo.com to the Domains list on the Internal tab of the Access Edge server Properties
dialog box.
C. You should add corp.wiikigo.com to the Domain list on the Allow tab of the Access Edge server
Properties dialog box.
D. You should add corp.wiikigo.com to the Domains list on the Internal tab of the Access Edge server
Properties dialog box.
Answer: D
10. You work as an administrator in an international communication company. You are in charge of the
network of your company. Your company server has Office Communications Server 2007 R2 deployed.
Now you get a report from some users, according to this report, the Call from Work feature of Windows
Communicator Mobile Edition functions abnormally. You check and find that it’s the case. As the technical
support, you must solve this problem, make it functions properly. So what should you do?
A. You should enable remote access for the users.
B. You should change the location profile settings for the users.
C. In your perimeter network, you should install an Access Edge server.
D. On a server, you should install Communicator Web Access in your perimeter network.
Answer: D
Free Citrix 1Y0-613 Access Suite 4.0 Exam Braindump
Free Citrix 1Y0-613 Access Suite 4.0 Exam Braindump, The Citrix® 1Y0-613 exam is 44 questions long, 120 minutes to take it and a 61% score is needed to pass. The 1Y0-613 exam covers the subjects: Facilitate Project Management, Identify and Assess Access Infrastructure, Assess Server Environment, Assess Security Infrastructure, Identify Directory Services Type, Version and Structure, Assess Presentation Server Implementation and Assess Access Suite 4.0 Products.
This exam is 100% scenario questions. Test-takers MUST have plenty of real-world experience before tackling this exam. The practice exams and study guides from Citrixxperience.com alone will not be enough to pass this exam.
MetaFrame® Presentation Server 4.0 Administrator’s Guide
1Y0-613 Citrix® Access Suite 4.0: Analysis Enablement Guide
Citrix® Password Manager 4.0 Administrator’s Guide
Getting Started with Citrix® Access Gateway 4.2
Access Gateway 4.2 Administrator’s Guide
Access Gateway Pre-installation Checklist
Advanced Access Control for Access Gateway 4.2 Administrator’s Guide
Web Interface Administrator’s Guide
1. Scenario: Your team will provide an assessment of a client’s Access Suite environment, which will then
be followed by the POC (Proof of Concept) and design phases. You met with the Active Directory
Administrator twice. In these meetings, you learned that there are multiple OUs (Organizational Units)
related to the Citrix servers and that different GPOs (Group Policy Objects) apply to each OU. You asked
for more detailed information regarding how they have applied the OU structure and GPO, but it has not yet
been provided. You have raised this issue several times to the customer project manager and even the
project sponsor.
This information is required for both the assessment and upcoming design. What should you do in
response to this delay?
A. You should issue a risk memo to the Active Directory Administrator.
B. You should issue a risk memo to the project manager and project sponsor.
C. You should include this in the Issues section of the weekly project status report.
D. You should conclude the assessment portion of the project and indicate that the information was
unavailable in all areas related to network traffic.
Answer: B
2. Scenario: Your consulting firm must provide an Access Strategy Assessment to a company based on one
Presentation Server farm consisting of 15 servers. The company has instructed the team to review specific
configurations related to printing and Terminal Services profiles to address user complaints. Finally, you are
required to talk directly with several users who have been experiencing issues.
In discussing the Statement of Work with the customer, approximately how much time should be allotted for
the Access Strategy Assessment?
A. 1 – 2 weeks
B. 3 – 4 weeks
C. 2 – 3 business days
D. 14 – 20 business days
Answer: A
3. Scenario: After a meeting with the CIO from your client organization, you learn that they plan to expand
their environmental consulting practice and double in size in the next two years. Six of their Presentation
Servers are used to host a specific application that facilitates writing environmental management plans.
This application is accessed by field consultants through Access Gateway Advanced Edition. Users report
that they are generally satisfied with the current access strategy, although they occasionally experience
connection issues to the file server that houses customer documentation.
They plan on adding two or three additional modules of the application within the next few months. The CIO
has asked you to review their current environment to determine how it can be optimized in order to support
their plans.
Based on the information provided, what is the primary objective of the client organization?
A. Growth
B. Security
C. User connectivity
D. Application deployment
Answer: A
4. Scenario: An enterprise deployed a Presentation Server farm which includes five servers. These servers
were built manually using a documented process. They are planning to expand the environment by one to
two servers per quarter and seek guidance from you regarding how they should facilitate the server build
process.
What should you recommend?
A. They should continue to use the manual process as it is suitable for the provided projections.
B. They should create a base server build based on the operating system, Citrix Presentation Server, and
all applications using a scripting or
cloning tool.
C. They should create a base server build based on the operating system using a scripting or cloning tool.
Citrix Presentation Server and all applications should be deployed using Installation Manager.
D. They should create the base server build based on the operating system and Citrix Presentation Server
using a scripting or cloning tool. All applications should be deployed using Installation Manager.
Answer: D
5. Scenario: You have been asked to assess the Presentation Server environment at a corporation. As
you learn more about the corporation, you find that inconsistencies abound within the environment, and as
a result has led to user frustration and dissatisfaction.
When questioning the administrator of the Presentation Server about the requirements for implementing
changes, he states that he merely informs the other administrators verbally or by e-mail about major
changes, such as a new application or server. Minor changes, such as configuration modifications, are
commonly made as necessary.
Which two recommendations would you make regarding the change control process? (Choose two.)
A. Only two administrators should be allowed to make changes.
B. Administrators should be allowed to make changes only after informing the other administrators.
C. Administrators should be allowed to make changes only after having tested the change thoroughly.
D. Administrators should be allowed to make changes only when following a fully documented process.
Answer: CD
6. Scenario: A construction company has deployed a Presentation Server farm consisting of four servers.
Because of a recent virus attack, they installed Terminal Services-certified anti-virus software on the
Presentation Servers. The anti-virus software that they use has the required features; it checks
continuously for updated patterns and scans all incoming and outgoing files. As a result, the company found
that the number of users per server dropped.
In order to use the anti-virus software effectively and increase the number of users per server, which two
configuration changes should the company implement? (Choose two.)
A. Incoming files should be scanned at all times.
B. Outgoing files should be scanned at all times.
C. Incoming files should be scanned during business hours.
D. Outgoing files should be scanned during business hours.
E. Incoming files should be scanned during non-business hours.
F. Outgoing files should be scanned during non-business hours.
Answer: AF
7. Scenario: A company has engaged your team to review their Citrix Access Suite deployment with a focus
on their security environment. Their Security Manager has advised the Citrix Administrators that corporate
security must be tightened because of a recent leak of corporate information. Based on discussions and
observations, you learned that:
Physical security within the data center is based on card access that is limited to specific individuals.
Administrators use the RDP protocol to remotely access servers. Users cannot access any resources using
RDP.
Web Interface servers and Presentation Servers are located behind the internal firewall.
Access Gateway devices are located in the DMZ.
Two-factor authentication is required for Access Gateway connections.
Pass-through authentication is enabled for users.
Based on these data points, what should you recommend to this company?
A. Pass-through authentication should be disabled.
B. Administrators should be prohibited from using RDP protocol as well.
C. Place an additional Web Interface server in the DMZ for external users only.
D. Two-factor authentication should be disabled for users and a single sign-on solution should be
implemented.
Answer: A
8. Scenario: A company currently has no policy in place to deactivate dismissed users accounts. Users in
this environment have also maintained the same password for the past three (3) years. The company has
been victimized on numerous occasions by criminals and ex-employees who use their passwords and the
passwords of others to steal corporate information and trade it to outsiders.
The IT Manager wants to immediately change every user password, implement identity verification
questions for password security, enforce the change of passwords every 45 days and allow passwords to
be reused once every 36 months.
Based on the assessment of the current environment, which two recommendations would you give to the
company as a means of optimizing their Password Manager environment? (Choose two.)
A. Implement self-service password reset and set it to 45 days.
B. Implement password policies for password expiration settings.
C. Implement identity verification questions to ensure password security.
D. Implement a complex password policy requiring users to use varying characters and numbers.
Answer: BC
9. Scenario: A hospital has Password Manager 4.1 configured for use with four published applications in its
Presentation Server 4.0 farm. As a result of an expansion, which included the acquisition of other hospitals,
the company has added several new applications to enhance the productivity of their employees. The
number of applications that require users to authenticate has increased by 100%. These users also have
no means of changing/resetting their own passwords.
Requirement: The IT Manager wants to meet these requirements:
Applications that require authentication should be configured so that users can save their credentials and
avoid the extra time spent entering them every time in order to use the same applications.
Helpdesk load must be kept at a reduced level by enabling users with capabilities to change their own
primary passwords.
Users will have to change their passwords every eight weeks.
Passwords will have to be a minimum of eight characters and contain at least one numeric character.
Based on the current setup of their environment, which three recommendations would you make to the CIO
as a better means of optimizing Password Manager? (Choose three.)
A. Implement an Active Directory central store to allow pass-through authentication.
B. Implement Password Manager Account Self-Services to allow users to change their own primary
passwords.
C. Implement a Presentation Server policy to allow pass-through authentication to Presentation Server
published applications.
D. Implement a Password Manager policy in order to ensure that users’ passwords are changed according
to the requirements.
E. Implement a Password Manager policy for applications that require credentials so that users’ passwords
are stored after they authenticate for the first time.
Answer: BDE
10. Scenario: A marketing firm has Access Gateway Advanced Edition implemented as the single point of
entry into its Citrix farm. A federal auditing team fined the firm for not complying with security requirements
to protect customers’ privacy. A partner of this firm, in charge of their billing and collection, was discovered
printing personal data belonging to the firm’s customers. This partner needs access to the database to bill
customers but has apparently been using the data for improper purposes.
To resolve the issue, the state auditing team and the marketing firm reached an agreement stating that
policies should be implemented that would prohibit external users from printing certain information.
Based on the stated requirement, which two recommendations should you provide to the IT Manager?
(Choose two.)
A. Implement access to the database application as a file share, but deny the partners.
B. Implement Presentation Server policies that prevent printing, clipboard mapping and drive mapping.
C. Implement access to the database application as a web resource with File Type Association for external
users.
D. Implement access to the database application as a network resource with the No Print action control for
the resource.
E. Implement access to the database application as a network resource with the Live Edit action control for
external users.
Answer: BC
11. Scenario: A company asked you to assess their access strategy, with focus on their remote access
solution. All issues reported relating to remote access have been traced back to network connections or
user permissions.
Click on the exhibit button to view the current configuration of this environment.
Based on the exhibit, what is your assessment of their implementation?
A. The current configuration is adequate.
B. Web Interface should be moved to the internal network.
C. Additional Web Interface redundancy should be deployed
D. Additional Secure Gateway redundancy should be deployed
Answer: A
12. Scenario: A medical company has hired you to assess their current access strategy and make security
and redundancy recommendations to ensure tight control access and availability to their Presentation
Server-based ordering system. The company does not want internal users to have network access to the
DMZ.
At this time, the company cannot purchase additional hardware. Their environment is standardized with
servers of the same hardware configuration, and each server hosts the same set of applications. The
servers are fairly new; they were purchased a year ago. Each Presentation Server has resource utilization
of approximately 40-50% during business hours.
The company allows sales to pre-defined distributors as entered by call center agents, as well as direct
order entry by these distributors.
Click on the exhibit button to view their current setup.
What is your assessment of their current implementation?
A. Web Interface should be removed from the Secure Gateway servers.
B. The current environment represents high security based on the server resources that are available.
C. One of the Presentation Servers should be reallocated exclusively as the data store database server,
and the MSDE data store should be moved to that server.
D. The two Secure Gateway/Web Interface servers should segregate functionality in the DMZ so that
Secure Gateway is located on one server and Web Interface is located on another server.
Answer: B
13. Scenario: A recording company, based in Alaska, recently began an expansion effort and has since
opened a satellite office in Seattle. The company also relocated approximately 15% of its Alaska staff there.
The company’s current environment includes Access Gateway Advanced Edition integrated with
Presentation Server 4.0 in VPN mode as the single point of entry.
Users in the satellite office need to access MetReg, a recording database that contains the company’s
customer data. The company is very careful about allowing access to important information from external
entry points.
The IT team wants to have the capability to provide external users with restricted access to this SQL
database. The IT Director is currently seeking consultation to implement the new access strategy.
Based on the current situation at this company, how would you recommend the IT team optimize their
Access Gateway Advanced Edition environment?
A. Implement access to the database application as a file share but deny the Seattle users read
permissions
B. Implement access to the database application as a web resource with File Type Association for external
users.
C. Implement access to the database application as a network resource with File Type Association for
external users.
D. Implement access to the database application as a web resource with the Download action control for
external users
Answer: B
14. Scenario: A mobile phone company has Citrix Presentation Server 4.0 implemented in its environment.
The CIO has mandated that no single points of failure exist within the environment.
The company has hired you to assess their Citrix environment. Which two statements explain why the
installation of another license server, which will not be clustered, is not necessary? (Choose two.)
A. The addition of another license server will increase IT workload.
B. The addition of another license server will reduce current network bandwidth.
C. The addition of another license server does not address the requirement because two license servers
cannot share the same license file.
D. The addition of another license server will not help the company because Presentation Server users will
still be able to connect for up to 30 days after connection is lost to the license server.
E. The addition of another license server will provide for load balancing. Presentation Servers will have the
option to connect to the least busy license server or the license server closest to them.
Answer: CD
15. Scenario: A company engaged your team to assess their Presentation Server environment. Users in the
remote offices are experiencing slow Presentation Server sessions at certain times during the day; however,
users in the headquarters office do not experience slow sessions. In reviewing their environment, you have
learned that printing policies are configured for all users as listed:
All printers are autocreated
Only the universal printer driver is used.
No printer bandwidth policies are invoked.
No session printing policies are configured.
User devices are running on Win32, WinCE/Pocket PC, and Macintosh devices, all of which use the most
recent and appropriate Presentation Server Client. Which two risks can you associate with the printing
environment? (Choose two.)
A. Network printing is configured.
B. No printer bandwidth policies are invoked.
C. Auto-creating all printers could be taking additional time.
D. Not all clients can take advantage of the latest universal printer driver.
E. Not limiting printer bandwidth is having an adverse impact on all users.
F. The universal printer driver is used if the native driver is unavailable for all users.
Answer: BD
